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Considering that they did nothing when Germany went against the Treaty of Versailles and increased their army, then reoccupy Rhineland in 1936. Don't you think Britain and France should have invaded? or no? I am just curious! Thanks!

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2007-04-16 12:10:24 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

10 answers

I believe that Hitler had meglomaniacal ambitions and that he wasn't stopping anytime soon. Granted the appeasement strategy didn't work, but there is no certainty that anybody could have stopped Germany earlier. And, the rest of the world wouldn't have supported them. Most countries were heartily sick of war as it was less than 20 years since the Armistice. Europe was still hurting badly. All they wanted was reparations and to be allowed to live in peace. If you look at France at this time, you'll see that all their prep was defensive, none was offensive. And, to "stop" Hitler, preemptive action would have been required, and it would have meant the whole continent having to get involved. Britain couldn't do it alone.

2007-04-16 12:16:16 · answer #1 · answered by Still reading 6 · 2 1

England was not in a position to do much about it at the time. They had seriously disarmed after the Great War. When the Germans started ignoring the Versailles Treaty, they didn't have the forces to invade if they wanted to. Besides, the people of England would never have accepted the need to start another war at that time.

In fact, that was the main reason for the appeasement attempt after Germany annexed Czechaslovakia. They really couldn't do anything at the time, so they tried to buy more time to re-arm. Unfortunately the Germans were way ahead of the rest of them in terms of tactics and when they invaded Poland, forcing England and France to respond, they were in a position to easily defeat their opponents.

If Britain had declared war earlier, they would likely have been viewed as bullies and aggressors, and would not have received any support. Germany would have defeated them first and then still taken all of Europe.

2007-04-16 15:41:32 · answer #2 · answered by rohak1212 7 · 0 0

I think that Hitler was going to have his way rather or not Britian invaded earlier or just waited like they did. The Treaty of Versailles had a lot of points to it, but without America's support, it was weak. Pres. Wilson was the one that came up with the 14 points the the treaty was based on. I think that WWII was going to happen sooner or later and that Britain and France couldn't have stopped the war from coming altogether.

2007-04-16 13:01:19 · answer #3 · answered by slonroberta 2 · 0 0

Well, my history teacher said that if the British or French enforced the Treaty of Versailles and prevented the occupation of the Rhineland, that would have been the last chance to stop Hitler before he gained confidence. When nobody cared that he disobeyed the Treaty, he had the confidence to Anschluss with Austria, or form a union, annex Czechoslovakia, and invade Poland to regain the territories of the Second Reich.

2007-04-16 12:19:19 · answer #4 · answered by adam w 2 · 0 0

Remember, the Treaty of Versaille was very weak, mainly due to the war-guilt clause.


There were more than 20 million deaths, 20 million wounded, and 10 million refugees.
and overall the war cost $338 billion.
According to the Treaty of Versaille, Germany alone owed the Allied Powers $33 billion.
So, more than likely, neither country was financially stable or had enough troops that were strong enough to invade.

2007-04-16 12:30:31 · answer #5 · answered by Kristin 3 · 1 0

I can see where you're coming from, but England was in a poor position to start another war. Many English felt that Germany had been overpunished by the Treaty of Versailles and they had to hop over France to stop them in any event. WWII (unlike WWI) is Germany's baby and no revisionist historical viewpoint is necessary.

2007-04-16 12:15:07 · answer #6 · answered by balderarrow 5 · 1 0

You can convince yourself of absolutely anything, if you decide which facts you are going to take into account and which facts to ignore. You might as well claim that the midwife or doctor at Hitler's birth was responsible for the war, because they could have strangled him.

When something bad happens, the responsibility for it lies with the first person who chose to do something wrong, which led to it. They cannot shift the responsibility by blaming the first, or second, or third person who could have stopped them, or who could have altered the consequences of their choice. It was Hitler who chose to break the treaty, and do everything else, so the responsibility for what happened as a result is 100% Hitler's.

2007-04-16 23:08:14 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Britain is completely to blame for WWII. When Germany invaded Poland,Britain declared war on Germany not the other way around.After France was overrun and surrendered Germany wanted peace with Britain but it was refused.As for the appeasement before the war if they had taken a tougher stance they may have delayed Hitlers plans but it seems unreasonable to assume they would have thwarted them,

2007-04-16 12:33:53 · answer #8 · answered by tom b 2 · 0 3

I believe that no matter how you look at it, it was all Germany (Hitler)fault. Britain and France lost many soldiers from the WW1 and if they invaded, I think Germany will overpower them, since Britain and France were weak after the WW1.

2007-04-16 12:21:26 · answer #9 · answered by de-lovely* 2 · 1 1

Partly ???!!! YEAH!!!

Appeasement was the greenlight for Hitler to continue doing just what he had been doing- grabbing up territory.

He had already taken land...then Chambarlain says, "ooh, okay, don't do it again and we won't get mad Herr Hitler.' Hitler laughs and says," They are too afraid to stop me. On to Poland!"


.

2007-04-16 12:28:44 · answer #10 · answered by ? 5 · 0 1

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