THat's my great philosopher!
2007-04-24 03:34:52
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answer #1
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answered by ŞΘFΙΛ 3
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First off, you must mean 2=4.
Secondly, the statement proves nothing about 2 or 4 or 3.
(3-2)^2 = (3-4)^2
(1)^2= (-1)^2
1 = -1
Of course, saying 1 = -1 would also be false, because the sequence overlooks the fact that the square root of x^2 = -x or x - it has two possible answers; not a single unique answer.
You could just as well say that 150 degrees = 30 degrees, since the sine of both angles is 0.5.
2007-04-16 12:47:06
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answer #2
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answered by Bob G 6
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I see your point. Often in math texts, they use the example of the reflexive property of equality this way:
x + 2 = 5 and 3 + 2 = 5, so x must equal 3. So, every statement must equal itself.
But just because two statements are equal, doesn't mean they are the same statement! That's an error in logic that philosophers categorized long ago. A class in logic would be a good place for a budding philosopher like yourself!!
Keep asking questions!!
2007-04-22 20:24:10
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answer #3
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answered by Tom G 2
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(3-2)^2=(3-4)^2 then 3=2 is it right ? False
the equation is right
1^2=-1^2
1=1
2007-04-16 14:11:59
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answer #4
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answered by Dave aka Spider Monkey 7
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(3-2)^2 = (3-4)^2, then 3=2 (?) -------> NO.
[x-(x-1)]^2 = [(x-(x+1]^2,
[0-1]^2 = [0+1]^2
(-1)^2 = (+1)^2
1 = 1, not -1 = 1
2007-04-23 02:40:33
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answer #5
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answered by PJA 4
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No;
this won't cause a false statement.
3-2 is 1, 3-4 is -1, both are 1 when squared:
1 = 1
2007-04-16 12:26:58
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answer #6
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answered by Joy M 7
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No because x^2 = (-x)^2 but x and -x are not same
that means a^2 = b^2 means a= b or a = -b
2007-04-16 12:28:00
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answer #7
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answered by Mein Hoon Na 7
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3 can never equal 2.
2007-04-24 12:28:55
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answer #8
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answered by kathyw 7
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No, because when you have a^2 = b^2 and take the square root of both sides, you don't necessarily get a=b. You get ±a = ±b, or rather just a = ±b.
2007-04-16 12:45:59
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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The first statement is true. The second statement is false.
2007-04-24 11:49:30
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answer #10
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answered by schunkwc1952 1
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