Does "I didn't mean to", satisfy your curiosity, anger. Does "I didn't mean to" answer your question?
2007-04-15 17:07:15 · 21 answers · asked by kayboff 7 in Entertainment & Music ➔ Polls & Surveys
No.....I want an explanation
2007-04-15 17:10:16 · answer #1 · answered by SidBridge 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Just so you know, what you have in quantity, you lack in quality and coherence. I think You're trying to make the overall point that Satan is something he is not. Jesus Christ is being referred to as the day star(in 2 Peter 1:19) and as the morning star (in Revelation 22:16). Lucifer (and yes this may just be a picture of the Satan's fall from God's grace) is referred to as the "son of the morning"(in Isaiah 14:12) My question now that this is clarified is, "so what"? God refers to Jesus Christ as his "only begotten Son", or "only begotten", several times (9 times)...John 1:14,18, 3:16 etc...). PS the Latin Vulgate is a corrupted perversion based loosely on the Textus Receptus which is what the KJV is translated from. The Latin Vulgate is the basis for the Catholic Catechism, and included the Apocrypha etc... all which were never accepted as anything other than corrupt by the apostolic, Christ based churches, over 300 years after the Bible was put together, received and accepted by those faithful to the apostolic tradition. (Hence the name Received or Traditional Text).
2016-04-01 03:41:36 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I didn't mean to means only that I don't have an answer that will satisfy you and I know it. Or, I am so sorry -- I didn't mean to can we just forget it and move on........it doesn't answer for having an affair tho......that is a lame one.
I didn't mean to is another way of saying "I am sorry- I didn't mean to.....".
2007-04-15 17:14:29 · answer #3 · answered by missellie 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No
My ex uses this same phrase as an excuse for having an affair.
2007-04-15 17:10:40 · answer #4 · answered by Angel Girl 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. My response would be "then why did you do it in the first place, dork"? Then I'd boil, w/smoke coming out of both nose and ears until I cooled down.
2007-04-15 17:12:54 · answer #5 · answered by imaniche 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It definitely depends on the situation.
For some situations i think it could work, and for some anothers obviously i think it couldn´t work at all.
Just my humble opinion.
Bye!.
2007-04-15 17:15:11 · answer #6 · answered by Julia 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Nope. That's like an all purpose excuse.
It's a cop out.
2007-04-15 17:11:58 · answer #7 · answered by ♥Tiilynn♥ 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
it does in criminal law...you see intending to cause harm actually plays a big role in deciding if a person is guilty or not...but no, for the victim it does not ease the hurt...
2007-04-15 17:12:48 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
That would depend on the question wouldn't it? There's a big difference between, "why did you drop your toast on the floor" and "why did you cheat on me".
2007-04-15 17:12:10 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
Not really. It's too easy to say as an afterthought.
2007-04-15 17:10:51 · answer #10 · answered by kitten lover3 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
They only work when I am saying them to someone else. If someone says that to me then they get a slap in the back of the head
2007-04-15 17:10:38 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋