Shadow is right. It depends on the rest of the inning. The way that it was always explained to me was to think how many runs would have scored that inning if no errors occurred.
In your example, say there was no outs. After all the chaos happened he is at third. Then the next two guys get hits. Then you strikout the next three in a row to end the inning. If your catcher DID NOT overthrow second, the runner would be at second. The next two hits would have scored him anyway. It should go as an earned run then, in that case.
2007-04-15 15:10:44
·
answer #1
·
answered by steve p 3
·
2⤊
0⤋
It depends on how he scores and what happens the rest of the inning. In determining whether a run is earned or not, the official scorer is supposed to look at whether the run would have scored without any errors. Most likely, the scorer would rule that he'd have been safe on the steal but only made it to 3rd on the error. Thus, if he scores in a way that would only have been possible because of the error, it's unearned. Let me give examples:
Suppose we're at the point where your guy is on 3rd base. He scores on an infield single, and after that all batters strike out to end the inning. The run would be unearned, because without the error he would only have been at 2nd base and made it to 3rd on the single.
However, suppose he scores on a double or home run. In those cases, the run would have scored whether he'd been on 2nd or 3rd, and thus the run would count as earned.
2007-04-16 05:08:33
·
answer #2
·
answered by JerH1 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
It depends on what else happens that inning. In determining if a run is earned or unearned the scorekeeper takes into account all actions of that inning and (for each run) asks himself (herself) the question, "Would that run have scored if no error was made?" Therefore, in your situation, if the following batter hit a sacrifice fly and the next batter struck out to end the inning, the run would be unearned because the runner wouldn't have scored unless he was at third base. However, if the following batter hit a home run, the run would be earned because the error would have had no effect on the inning's outcome.
2007-04-15 14:46:42
·
answer #3
·
answered by Shadow 4
·
1⤊
0⤋
The run is earned. (assuming no batter reached base, with 2 outs, after the throwing error & before the passed ball)
The catchers throwing error did not allow a man to reach base that otherwise would have been an out or allow a hitter to bat that would not have batted w/o the error.
Then since passed balls are not scored as errors, the run is earned. Also, give the batter ab RBI.
2007-04-15 20:08:28
·
answer #4
·
answered by H.E. G 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
It would be earned. Not even a tough question. If you want a tough one answer this, in the exact same scenario, if while running home the runner poots with his left foot (and that foot is inside the baseline) on or inside the baseline and the 3rd baseman slips because of this while trying to play the ball being thrown in from the outfield, is that interference? Obviously if both feet are outside the field of play it doesn't matter, but in this case he is running straight down the line when he poots, one foot to the left inbounds and one foot to the right of the line out of play.
The other good one is how can a player take 11 straight pitches without hitting any balls foul or reaching base?
2007-04-15 14:46:09
·
answer #5
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
I KNOW THE ANSWER THE SAME THING HAPPENED TODAY!!
The run would be unearned.
Today in the Blue Jays vs. Tigers game, pitcher Josh Towers allowed a single to Curtis Granderson. Granderson then stole second base. Later, Josh would attempt to pick him off but his throw sailed into the outfield. Granderson raced around third and scored standing up. The run would be the only run Josh would allow in his 7 2/3 innings of work. His line, however, showed that the run was unnearned even though the throwing error had been charged to him. So that means no matter who makes the error, it is still an unearned run.
2007-04-15 14:53:40
·
answer #6
·
answered by jaysrule5 2
·
0⤊
2⤋
I think it is, for it to be an unearned run the error has to allow the run to score when it otherwise wouldn't have. In this case the runner would of still scored without the error so its still an earned run.
2007-04-15 14:40:31
·
answer #7
·
answered by ajn4664_ksu 4
·
1⤊
0⤋
it depends when the runner scores
if he scores because he ran home on the error, yes
if he scores because the next gut gets a hit, no. the runner is already in scoring position, so he has a good chance to score on a hit if he is fast enough.
if he scores on a sacrifice fly in the outfield, it depends on whether he can run from second to home on that play. If he can, then no. if he cant, then yes.
2007-04-15 14:39:45
·
answer #8
·
answered by Tom 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
In baseball they dont give RBI's and error on the same play.
So it would go down as an error on the catcher, dont understand why he would score from second unless the throw was way off or unless the runner was real fast.
The pitcher would be off the hook for this one
2007-04-15 14:39:32
·
answer #9
·
answered by Jack L. W. 3
·
0⤊
2⤋
the blunders ahead of the HR prolonged the inning. There would desire to have been 3 outs already, so even however Dempster gave up the HR all via himself, it continues to be unearned. In concept, 6 extra runs would have scored after that HR and not one in all them might have brought about Dempster's era to go up. Wierd, eh?
2016-10-22 06:41:49
·
answer #10
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋