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just wonderinnggg

2007-04-15 09:02:52 · 2 answers · asked by WildHog22 1 in Social Science Economics

Why has Canada experienced a decline in productivity since 1973.

2007-04-15 09:38:31 · update #1

2 answers

I am going to answer this as I saw you asked it before and got a bad answer. Productivity is in decline in North America, and an answer that says Canada productivity decline is due to how it is different than the US and labour drain to the US is simplistic given that the US is declining at similar rates to Canada.

Here is an article on the subject. It says the economy includes more services (and services grow slower than products), mature industries are not advancing technology (read car manufacturing). Energy (oil) costs relative to all costs of production were lower before 1973. That was the first time they spiked. You aren't talking about a continual steady decline. Productivity goes up and down a lot and just happens to be lower than in 1973. Each time the cost of fuel spikes, growth spikes inversely.

You will have to read the link, there is too much to summarize.

2007-04-15 10:14:54 · answer #1 · answered by JuanB 7 · 0 0

Please rephrase your question. What kind of productivity?

2007-04-15 16:29:17 · answer #2 · answered by altinnovation 3 · 0 0

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