Ya.
2007-04-15 07:17:40
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answer #1
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answered by Ballzy 6
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Of course. Ditto if he's hit by the pitch.
If a runner scores on an error, there may not be an rbi. And if a runner scores on a non-out double play, there is no rbi given. Other than that, driving in a run always results in an rbi.
I'm giving you the link to the rulebook, and to a few other pages that will also help you to under this and other questions about baseball.
2007-04-15 07:27:27
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes. An RBI is given to a batter for each run scored as the result of a batter's plate appearance.
Add: Contrary to what an above poster said, a walk is considered a plate appearance.
2007-04-15 07:20:43
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Check the open questions next time before posting, as this question is open.
Yes. The batter would also get an RBI if he were hit by a pitch and awarded first.
Source(s):
14-year umpire; Senior League World Series information director; Official Baseball Rules: 10.04(a)
2007-04-15 07:57:52
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answer #4
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answered by Ryan R 6
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Yes the batter gets the RBI. Also if he was hit by the pitch he would get the RBI and the runner that scors gets the run scored. Hope this was helpfull. Jim
2007-04-15 07:34:56
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answer #5
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answered by gooch44975 2
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Yes, he gets an RBI, No it isn't counted as an at-bat. A similar situation is found in a sacrifice fly ball, it doesn't count as an at-bat but runs scored are credited as RBIs
2007-04-15 07:31:23
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answer #6
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answered by Troy 6
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Yes
2007-04-19 01:07:41
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes
2007-04-15 07:57:28
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answer #8
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answered by andy 2
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Yes
2007-04-15 07:18:16
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answer #9
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answered by Mr. G 6
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definite it does. despite the fact that he brought about the run to get for the duration of--different than with the aid of grounding right into a double play, that's an rbi--getting hit with the aid of the picth, getting a base hit, risk-free on an errors, flyout, floor out, or fielder's decision, and so on. all of it seems the comparable interior the field score.
2016-12-16 06:29:42
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answer #10
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answered by goslin 4
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Yes. MLB rule #10.04(a) states, in part:
"The official scorer shall credit the batter with a run batted in for every run that scores . . .
(2) by reason of the batter becoming a runner with the bases full (because of a base on balls, an award of first base for being touched by a pitched ball or for interference or obstruction)"
2007-04-15 10:09:41
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answer #11
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answered by JerH1 7
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