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2007-04-14 12:54:29 · 3 answers · asked by STORMY K 3 in Science & Mathematics Biology

3 answers

Its because of how the tongue develops.
The front(anterior) 2/3rd of tongue develops from two lingual swellings..ie on on each side that consequently fuse. thats the reason, however the back( posterior)1/3 develops from one swelling and not to, closely observe this there wont be any split in the back part!

2007-04-14 17:47:05 · answer #1 · answered by Mufaddal Kazi 3 · 0 0

Because it's not split at the sides...

2016-05-20 01:01:36 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

thats a good question
i think its just becuse it does
there really is no answer

2007-04-14 13:02:23 · answer #3 · answered by BRIT™ 3 · 0 1

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