With rape there might be DNA evidence, but how about with simple molestation, fondling or similar? Surely it can't simply be his word against the child's word? People always say, "just tell someone" and it'll be taken care of and then you hear about people like priests getting convicted of 100 instances of fondling genitals or something. Is it the overwhelming number of accusations that does it? Is anyone ever convicted of one count of fondling? How does it all work? No, I'm not thinking of accusing anyone nor have I ever been fondled. Please I'm just curious because I hear about it on the news all the time but I don't understand how it works?
2007-04-14
10:55:22
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6 answers
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asked by
Abernathy
1
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics