2007-04-14 07:58:56 · 5 answers · asked by marym 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Yes, but to win they have to prove that they were damaged in some way, that the statements were untrue, and that they were overheard by others (easy - the whole country knows).
If the court deems them public figures, then they have to prove malice - and probably cannot prevail on that point, since this is just business as usual for Imus.
2007-04-14 08:04:24 · answer #1 · answered by Catspaw 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. Defamation requires a factually false statement that is directly referencing specific individuals (or a specific group).
Unless the players can prove that Imus's use of the slur "ho's" was an intentional statement that they had engaged in illegal prostitution, then all he did was state an insulting opinion.
2007-04-14 11:18:58 · answer #2 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Insulting someone is not defamation...while what Imus said was rude and inappropriate, I don't see anything that would give rise to a claim for defamation. He didn't make any specific statements about the players that could be considered defamatory.
2007-04-14 08:38:52 · answer #3 · answered by Carl 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Most likely no...to prove defamation you must prove damages...there was no damages...as most of the nation was outraged...or at least the media
2007-04-14 08:11:14 · answer #4 · answered by Dr. Luv 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Since he was expressing an opinion, " they look like" it would be possible, but very difficult.
2007-04-14 20:21:27 · answer #5 · answered by Scotty 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋