Would a hand of two Queens, two Sevens, and one Ace beat three Tens, two Sevens and an Ace?
2007-04-14 07:44:54 · 12 answers · asked by Girly-Girl 4 in Games & Recreation ➔ Card Games
no, 2 queens and 2- 7s is two pair. 3 tens and 2- 7s is a full house. A full house (which is a pair and 3 of a kind) always beats two pair no matter what the two pair are.
2007-04-15 12:39:42 · answer #1 · answered by Texas Holdem Christie, ChristieRN, ChristieP, bab 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You have one problem in that the 2nd hand has 6 cards, which is impossible. But the 3 10's beats the 2 Q's and 2 7's. If the 2nd hand also has the 2 7's then it's even better: A full house, which crushes 2 pairs.
All that being said, is it possible there was a typo in your question. maybe you meant the 2nd hand was 2 10's, 2 7's and an Ace? If so, then the first hand wins (the highest pair in the first hand is higher than the highest pair in the 2nd hand).
2007-04-15 06:00:18 · answer #2 · answered by gogolion@sbcglobal.net 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, That is 2 pair against a full house. You can't have the ace with the 3 tens and 2 sevens. That is 6 cards, you are only allowed 5.
2007-04-14 07:51:28 · answer #3 · answered by asmikeocsit 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Saaammmme Poker
2016-04-01 01:37:24 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No... 2 Queens with 2 Sevens (and an Ace) is only 2 pair.. When you hold 3 alike cards (trips) with a pair like Sevens.. you get a Full House.
Below is a link of poker hands and rankings.
2007-04-14 14:48:32 · answer #5 · answered by woneyedjacks 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the seoncd hand cannot have 6 cards, but three of a kind beats two pair anyday
2007-04-14 07:48:47 · answer #6 · answered by erselius 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, but the person who has the 10's is cheating. They have 6 cards the other only has 5......
2007-04-14 07:50:04 · answer #7 · answered by lcritter55118 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm not sure what game your refering to, however if you're refering to five card stud or five card draw then two pair beats a full house
2007-04-14 10:10:10 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
no. because your opponent has a fullhouse and you only have a 2 pair and oh yeah your opponent has 6 cards you only have 5.
2007-04-15 00:18:55 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
no, the first hand is 2 pair. the 2nd hand is a fullhouse
2007-04-14 16:35:13 · answer #10 · answered by casper53 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋