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I'm sure I'm missing some silly little pattern in these problems, but I'm stuck on this one, lol. =) Any help and shortcuts/advice would be more than welcome. Thank you!

2007-04-13 17:25:56 · 3 answers · asked by Sami =) 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

ok i will help you
first thing to do is....

cos^2(x)-1
---------------
cos^2(x)

and you should know that
cos^2(x)+sin^2(x)=1
cos^2(x)-1= -sin^2(x)

ok now put this on the first equation


- sin^2(x)
-------------
cos^2(x)

it is equal to -tan^2(x)

Hope this helps

2007-04-13 17:33:24 · answer #1 · answered by phoenix 3 · 0 0

1-(sec^2(x)) Using the reciprical identities, because 1/(cos(x)) = sec(x). Works for squared functions too.

1-sec^2(x) = -tan^2(x) Using the Pathagorean Identies, because 1+ tan^2(x) = sec^2(x). Use algebra.

Or you could just leave it at 1-sec^2(x). Either way is a good answer. Any more questions, and you could just e-mail me at anandablack2002@yahoo.com. Good luck.

2007-04-14 00:48:58 · answer #2 · answered by anandablack2002 2 · 0 0

Yes, there is a silly pattern on this one.
The term in ( ) is sec^2 x in disguise, and then 1-sec^2 x is Tan^2 x in disguise. Sneaky these answer-producers.

2007-04-14 00:29:47 · answer #3 · answered by cattbarf 7 · 0 1

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