2007-04-13 11:58:06 · 10 answers · asked by Vijay P 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Almost every history book you read will have a different view on this, so you will end up having to gather information and make up your own mind.
Charles I (1625-49) was the last UK monarch who truly believed that he could govern the country however he wanted, and that it was Parliament's duty to pass whatever laws he told them to.
Parliament finally revolted against him in the name of the people, and executed him. They put up with his son Charles II (1660-85), but they revolted against his second son James (1685-88), deposed and exiled him, and made James' daughter Mary the Queen instead. After that, all the monarchs of the UK have let Parliament run the country, so it's been a monarchy in name but a democracy in practice.
2007-04-14 01:55:25 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Which countries has u . s . a . inspired? the united kingdom is a Parliamentary democracy. The monarch has no political power or maybe the proper Minister can not independently produce legislations. in truth the u . s . President has a strategies extra human being power and autonomy than the British proper Minister. because the proper of WW2 there hasn't ever been a time in which the united kingdom replaced right into a dictatorship and the monarchy is a constitutional position as Head of State with out power to dictate some thing.
2016-12-03 23:55:53 · answer #2 · answered by camargo 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The United Kingdom is still a monarchy. Its monarchy dates back hundreds and hundreds of years, and a monarch was in power in the United Kingdom long before the idea of "democracy" was ever given any thought. Although the Monarch's power is limited in todays government, the Monarch still opens Parliament, gives blessing to the Prime Minister and acts as official head of state.
2007-04-13 14:59:44 · answer #3 · answered by lwjksu89 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Democracy in England has always been present in English history in various forms, as English kings have never really had absolute power in its strictest sense. The nobility, and later the Middle class, have always been able to force the monarchy to concede power.
Democracy has been shaped not only by important political events - such as forcing King John to sign the Magna Carta or the beheading of Charles 1 and overthrow of James II, but also by important social and economic transformations.
Whoever has been able to control and dominate income, has been able to force the monarchy to concede power.
With very little resources at its disposal, the British monarchy has been forced to look to its nobility and its middle classes for taxes. During the reign of Queen Elizabeth, without any real navy and income decimated due to spending under her father Henry VIII and sister Mary 1, Elizabeth was forced to look to her nobles and merchants for income from trade, piracy and the establishment of the American colonies.
The emergence of the middle class during the Industrial revolution and the rise of the British Empire saw that these classes were demanding more say in government. But as towns turned to cities, working classes demanded more representation in the Parliament.
2007-04-14 01:21:26 · answer #4 · answered by Big B 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It was probably when the Magna Carta was signed (1500's or 1600's?) and Parliament was created that there was first giving power to the people and taking some away from the King. It could also have been when the Glorious Revolution occured and the King was overthrown (for a while...). There is really no date since well, the UK doesn't have a written constitution to have dates on its laws.
2007-04-13 12:24:28 · answer #5 · answered by meep meep 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
There's no specific date for that. But I'd say a major transition point took place during the industrial revolution in the 19th century when the working class became the largest class, which gave the House of Commons a lot more power than the House of Lords.
2007-04-13 12:12:46 · answer #6 · answered by The Quiet One 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Not yet. The monarchy still exists. Democracy is still waiting.
2007-04-13 18:50:04 · answer #7 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Democracy began during the reign of George I, who could not speak English, and therefore delegated to a Prime Minister. It is all here at this URL.
2007-04-13 21:32:00 · answer #8 · answered by Retired 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I believe it was around the time of Cromwell, theres no specific period really, it was gradual, but theres debate that the Cromwell (Roundheads vsCavaliers, Civil War, etc) was one of the key points regarding the transformation.
2007-04-13 12:23:50 · answer #9 · answered by Darkstar 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
I believe they are still a monarchy; hence, United Kingdumb...........
2007-04-13 12:06:00 · answer #10 · answered by ? 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋