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2 answers

= ln 8

Using this rule:

∫ f'(x)/f(x) dx = ln f(x) + C

You can do it by recognition. the 1/x term is the derivative of (1+ln x).

Thus

∫ dx / [x(1 + ln x)] = ln(1 + ln x) + C

Apply the limits = ln (1 + 7) - ln (1 + 0) = ln 8

2007-04-13 11:51:30 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Put 1+lnx= z so 1/x dx = dz
and you get the integral between 1 and 8
of dz/z = ln(z) between 1 and 8
= ln(8)

2007-04-13 22:04:21 · answer #2 · answered by santmann2002 7 · 0 0

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