workers would eventually suffer a greater than proportional decline in employment. This statement could best be explained if:
A. the new ages are to take effect immediatly
B. union labor can easily be replaced with capital
C. union labor is an insignificant portion of the total cost of production
D. the demand for the final product the workers produce is relatively inelastic
please answer and explain ty =]
2007-04-13
08:48:58
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5 answers
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asked by
MeLiSsA
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Social Science
➔ Economics