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3 answers

x = 1


This is because

log{base b} x = 0 <=> b^0 = x

anything to the power of 0 is 1

so x = 1

_____

Hope this helps.

2007-04-11 07:53:53 · answer #1 · answered by M 6 · 4 0

y =F(x) = log(base b)x can be rewritten as :
b^y = x
The x-intercept occurs when y =0, so
b^0 = x
1= x

2007-04-11 15:09:21 · answer #2 · answered by ironduke8159 7 · 0 0

The answer is listen better in class and don't use yahoo to do your homework. I have forwarded this to your instructor.

2007-04-11 14:54:17 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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