English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

After reading this article, I would happen to agree with it.

http://medsocial.com/blog.aspx?blogaction=viewblog&show=341

2007-04-11 06:21:45 · 4 answers · asked by Marisa C 1 in Social Science Psychology

4 answers

First you need to define disease.
Disease = dis-ease so by that definition any imbalance, chemical or otherwise must be dis-ease.

2007-04-11 06:27:39 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Anorexia and bulimia could be considered specialized forms of body dysmorphic disorder, which can result from an imbalance of seritonin in the brain. Since this is a human condition that impairs normal function, it would be considered a disease. The author of the article automatically assumes these conditions are out of sloth and stupidity, while at the same time completely ignoring the fact that many males also carry this condition. The tone and lack of true facts from this article lead me to completely dismiss its writer. I'm not saying his argument is completely false, just that he doesn't know what he's talking about.

2007-04-11 13:38:55 · answer #2 · answered by nixon737 2 · 0 0

Then you cannot consider gambling, drinking, or drug abuse a disease, either. At least initially, the person is making a decision over which they have total control that results in a significant loss of pleasure in life. In those same countries where kids are rummaging garbage pails for peach pits you don't see people gambling their houses away.

2007-04-11 13:28:26 · answer #3 · answered by morrowynd 7 · 0 0

This is not an expert oppinion, but after research, I do believe that they are consequences of a mental imbalance. These are behavioral paterns that end up causing diseases.

2007-04-11 13:32:27 · answer #4 · answered by cabron o 4 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers