if someone put stolen property into someones house, but the owner of the house gave the stolen goods to the police, can the owner still be charged with recieving/pocessing stolen property?
2007-04-10 08:27:34 · 4 answers · asked by cassie j 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
In the scene you describe, the home owner would not have the necessary intent to possess stolen property to be convicted of a crime. Now if he waited a month before notifying the police, then such intent might be inferred.
2007-04-10 10:44:32 · answer #1 · answered by Scotty 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Anyone can be charged with anything, so the answer is yes.
Convicted, probably not. While you can be convicted of receiving stolen property without knowing it was stolen, you have to at least know you received it.
2007-04-10 15:40:26 · answer #2 · answered by open4one 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No...If the stolen goods were givin to him and he/she returns the stolen goods to the police he did the right thing.
He also has to give up the theif to the police as well, if not than you are the one witht the stolen goods.
2007-04-10 15:38:16 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, but it's highly unlikely. If the property was promptly turned over to the police, there should not be a problem.
2007-04-10 15:33:24 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋