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2007-04-10 03:17:06 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

5 answers

Mainly to allow the British to move goods from their Eastern empire- India and Asia, back to Europe. Without the canal goods had to be taken via the time-consuming and dangerous route around South Africa.

The Panama canal similarly allowed the US to move goods by sea between the Pacific and Atlantic.

Both canals had the benefit of allowing naval ships to be moved more quickly in the vent of a war breaking out.

2007-04-10 03:39:12 · answer #1 · answered by llordlloyd 6 · 1 0

The Suez Canal was built to make a waterway between the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea possible and passable. It was finished in 1869.

2007-04-10 04:09:51 · answer #2 · answered by Dave aka Spider Monkey 7 · 0 0

the modern Suez Canal became formally opened in 1869, yet an historical canal existed till now that and would have been outfitted as early via fact the thirteenth Century B.C. one in all those canal does no longer have been suited for cutting-part navigation. Napoleon had seen rebuilding it many years till now De Lesseps undertook the modern canal. (i did no longer understand this till now I researched it.)

2016-12-15 21:18:46 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

A canal there would make it possible for ships of all nations to sail directly from the Mediterranean to the Indian Ocean and so avoid the tedious passage around the Cape of Good Hope.

2007-04-10 04:02:21 · answer #4 · answered by Retired 7 · 1 0

To be able to go to/from the Indian Ocean and Europe without have to go all the way around Africa.

2007-04-10 03:38:21 · answer #5 · answered by Kevin C 4 · 2 0

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