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11 answers

Before addressing your main question -- the text does NOT say the woman was Mary Magdalene (that is, "Mary of [the city of] Magdala"). And in fact she almost certainly was NOT the woman of this story. That notion is based an the popular but mistaken notion that Mary Magdalene was a prostitute.

The gospels do not say this. Instead the idea apparently is the result of someone's confusing a set of texts as well as two different Mary's. It assumes, first, that the 'sinful woman' who washed Jesus' feet in Luke 7 is the same as Mary of Bethany who did something very similar in John 11. But there are many differences between the two stories which make it likely these are two SEPARATE stories or two distinct women.

But even if they WERE the same, that Mary was Mary of BETHANY, not Mary of MAGDALA (two quite distinct places). Now the gospels DO tell us about Mary Magdalene's background -- that Jesus 'cast seven demons out of her' and that she was one of several well-to-do women who financially supported the work of Jesus and his disciples (see Luke 8:1-3. NO mention of prostitution or adultery.

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Now for your main question --

Since the passage (John 8) does not tell us WHAT he wrote, but does emphasize THAT he wrote, maybe we need to begin looking at it from that angle.

I believe the best answer was that suggested by J.Jeremias (and before him, I think, by Ambrose and Jerome)-- Jesus' action is an allusion to God's actions described in Jeremiah 17:13 -

"O LORD, the hope of Israel, all who forsake you shall be put to shame; those who turn away from you shall be **written in the earth**, for they have forsaken the LORD, the fountain of living water."

The point of Jeremiah's image is that names written in the dust of the earth do not last -- they are quickly erased. The imagery also calls to mind the picture of people dying and returning to the DUST.

Ironically, Jeremiah 17 begins with a reference to the SIN of Judah being written --with a pen of iron! (cf. Job 19:24). That is, their SIN will not be forgotten by God, and as a result THEY will be.

(See also the imagery of vv.5-6, a picture of the curse on the wicked: they are like a shrub in the desert, which does not last or bear fruit.)

This is a striking warning to the accusers, though I've not yet seen anyone explain precisely WHY Jesus would perform this particular symbolic action in THIS specific situation.

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So, here are my own thoughts on WHY he wrote:

One possibility I am exploring may be suggested by the final expression in Jeremiah 17:13, which refers to God as "the fount of living water".

This echoes the language of Jeremiah 2:13 - "my people have committed two evils: they have forsaken me, the fountain of living waters, and hewed out cisterns for themselves, broken cisterns that can hold no water. " Jeremiah 2 accuses the people of Judah of spiritual ADULTERY.

The language of 'waters' and 'cisterns' seems even to be based on sexual imagery -- compare Proverbs 5:15-18 -"Drink water from your own cistern, flowing water from your own well. Should your springs be scattered abroad, streams of water in the streets? Let them be for yourself alone, and not for strangers with you. Let your fountain be blessed, and rejoice in the wife of your youth."

In other words, Jesus' symbolic action, based on Jeremiah 17, may be not simply a declaration of judgment ('names written in the earth') but an accusation of forsaking God, that is, committing spiritual adultery. A rather appropriate image in this situation!

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Perhaps in all this there is an INDIRECT indication of the CONTENT of Jesus' writing. That is, by alluding to Jeremiah 17, the writer may we suggesting that it is people's NAMES (as Jeremiah 17 seems to point to). Or, connecting again with the larger context of Jeremiah's word of judgment --the accusation of spiritual adultery-- perhaps we are also to think of Numbers 5, where we read the law for testing a woman suspected of adultery. The procedure outlined in Numbers includes the writing out of curses (to which the woman will be subject if she is guilty).

Actually, the way the law is located in Numbers may already be hinting/warning the people that, just as God provided for the uncovering of the truth about of women accused of adultery (their guilt OR innocence), so to the SPIRITUAL adultery of the people would be uncovered and judged by God.

If John 8 is suggesting this there is another irony here -- the woman brought to Jesus was not just suspected but caught in the act (which likely means she was set up!). But the whole point of Jesus' act is that --as with Jeremiah 17 and Numbers 5 -- their SECRET sins (esp their spiritual adultery) would be uncovered by God! When the people were reminded of this by Jesus' words ('let him who is without sin. . . ') they had no answer and began to leave.

At any rate, John 8 seems at least to point to Jesus accusing the people of committing spiritual adultery, and warning of judgment for them (their being 'written in the dust'). Since the passage does not get more specific, perhaps we should not either.

2007-04-08 20:12:04 · answer #1 · answered by bruhaha 7 · 2 0

It's not stated in the Bible as to what he wrote. But if you asking about the episode in the Gospel of John, chapter 8, you might like to know that the woman who was brought before Jesus is not named at all. It is only stated as a "woman taken in adultery".

It seems that this woman is supposed to be Mary Magdalene is based on tradition rather than any indication in the Bible. There is one reference to Mary Magdalene in the Gospel of Mark, chapter 16 in which it is stated that Jesus had casted out seven devils from her. Of the 11 references in the Bible referring to Mary Magdalene, there is no statement that she is the woman taken in adultery.

2007-04-08 19:52:15 · answer #2 · answered by KK Oz 3 · 1 0

I concur with KK Oz 100%.

Now thinking about the meaning of Jesus writing in the soil, and then him giving an answer has value as a sign:

Words written are earthly things, gone with the wind, while words spoken have consequences.

2007-04-08 20:03:52 · answer #3 · answered by Xpablo 1 · 0 0

distinctive human beings and distinctive religions have distinctive techniques appropriate to the Marys. It relies upon upon who you ask. some say Mary Magdalene wasn't a prostitute in any respect, that Peter villified her out of jealosy. additionally, a woman of her age that exchange into no longer married exchange into additionally labled a whore. some had to because of the fact an single woman had no status or ability to feed or shield herself. So only throwing it available.

2016-12-20 09:30:41 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

No one knows exactly what He wrote on the ground. But the fact that He was writing on the ground had some significance (message or emphasis) to what the scribes and pharisees were calling for and the importance of the answer He was giving them about letting "He who is without sin cast the first stone".

2007-04-08 19:51:42 · answer #5 · answered by Kenneth L 5 · 0 2

He Wrote: Did God Create Man to serve the Law ? Then He Wrote: Or Did God Create the Law to Serve Man ?

2014-07-29 16:33:50 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Are you a freelance author who would like to discover a lot more about how to earn fantastic funds carrying out what you enjoy? If you want to advance your writing profession

2016-06-03 19:19:08 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

If the Bible doesn't say what He wrote then how do u think someone will be able to answer that? Our guess is as good as yours so don't let anyone try to tell u they know because they dont lol. Sorry

2007-04-08 19:45:44 · answer #8 · answered by '57strat 2 · 1 2

This question is for the Religion & Spirituality category.

2007-04-08 20:18:32 · answer #9 · answered by WMD 7 · 0 0

he was writing the sins of the pharasees

2007-04-08 19:44:44 · answer #10 · answered by nascarfan7677 3 · 0 2

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