2007-04-08 06:41:57 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
how did pie get to equal 3.14 or 22/7 i know when u divide 22/7 it equal to 3.14, but how did that happen?
2007-04-08 06:47:36 · update #1
how did the 7 and the 22 come from to make pie? i know when u divide 22 into 7 is 3.14, but how did that happen?
2007-04-08 06:49:53 · update #2
22/7 is only a rough approximation to pi which is an irrational number and so can´t be represented by a rational fraction
2007-04-08 06:46:41 · answer #1 · answered by santmann2002 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
there is a way using continued fractions to get a closer and closer approximation to pi, 22/7 is just the first order result, or you can just find that by trial and error, it is easier to just memorize 3.141592 early in your life, then for the next 60 years, no problem.
2007-04-08 06:56:27 · answer #2 · answered by jimcmillan 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
the phenomenon known as pi is something thats built into the fabric of our universe
if u take any circle in the world and measure its circumference and divide that number by the diameter of the circle, u will get pi.
thats where the formula (Circumference) = (pi)(diameter) comes from
hope that helps
2007-04-08 06:49:52 · answer #3 · answered by bob b 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
22/7 is not so closed to pi i dont know how they got it
but if you want to approximate the pi by engineering is 355/113 it is so closed to pi than 22/7
good luck
2007-04-08 07:00:03 · answer #4 · answered by Helper 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You mean why 22/7 (3.14) is NAMED "pi", right? Because the Greek word for perimetre starts with a Ï (pi), and the number itself is the ratio of a circle's perimetre to its diametre, and hence the name.... :).
2007-04-08 06:48:23 · answer #5 · answered by Astroboy 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
no, they are not the same.
22/7 is close to pi, but not eqal to pi.
pi was formed by ancient romans who found the are of a huge amount of circles.
2007-04-08 06:49:45 · answer #6 · answered by loololol 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It is not equal to pie, but it is the approximate value for pi, which is 3.14..........
2007-04-08 06:46:43 · answer #7 · answered by Mike 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Wrong Tarik; They are only rough approximations of Ï, which is in reality the sum of an infinite series.
2007-04-08 06:48:13 · answer #8 · answered by Steve 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
a long time ago, they decided that if you multiply the diameter(across) of a circl then you multiply it by pi, you would get the circumfrence
2007-04-08 06:59:41 · answer #9 · answered by movie star 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They are not equal to Ï, but they are simple approximations to it. 22/7 â 3.142857, where Ï â 3.141593, so the difference is 0.00126, which is 0.0004 of Ï, or an error of only 0.04%, which is certainly close enough for most practical purposes.
2007-04-08 06:50:20 · answer #10 · answered by Philo 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋