if a batter is hit by a pitch on the hand is it a foul ball or does he get to take his base
2007-04-07 16:33:31 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Sports ➔ Baseball
He goes to first base unless he was swinging, which is highly improbable.
If the ball had hit the bat and the ball it would have been considered a foul ball.
2007-04-07 16:48:34 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If it hits on the hand only , he gets go to first base ,however, it hits the bat first and then the hand then it is a foul ball. if his hands are in the strike zone or he is trying to get hit by the pitch then he cannot go to first base as well.
2007-04-07 23:08:22 · answer #2 · answered by Dave aka Spider Monkey 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the ball didn't hit the bat first, if the batter was not swinging, if the ball was not in the strike zone, and if the batter was trying to avoid being hit, he is awarded first base. It is a myth that the hands are part of the bat.
2007-04-07 18:25:50 · answer #3 · answered by Ryan R 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He takes a base
2007-04-07 16:44:50 · answer #4 · answered by .Forever Young. 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Takes a base.
2007-04-07 16:37:12 · answer #5 · answered by Kenny 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
He gets to take a base
2007-04-07 16:40:33 · answer #6 · answered by d 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
hand is not the bat so it is a hit by pitch and he takes his base.
2007-04-07 16:38:55 · answer #7 · answered by Traffic 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
He get's the base and most likely replaced by a pinch runner since his fingers have a good chance of being broken.
2007-04-07 16:41:17 · answer #8 · answered by bronxbloggers 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes he does get first base as long as his fist is hit first and in this condition the batter would most likey get a pinch runner do to the injury. hope i made it clear for you
2007-04-08 18:36:47 · answer #9 · answered by Ellyn C 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if he completes the swing it a foul ball, otherwise its a hit by pitch
2007-04-07 16:39:54 · answer #10 · answered by Kicks Galore! 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋