I would like to know what is the law in a muslim country when a non muslim man converts to islam so that he can take advantage of the islamic sharia law to his advantage. The man is hindu married to non muslim but now he would like to convert to islam so that he does not have to pay alimony and have two wives. Originally married under the indian marriage act. Does this mean that the sharia law will apply now that he has converted? Doesn't the original law apply ie the law of indian marriage act to the woman. Which law would apply to the non muslim first wife? Under what basis can she fight her case? The husband is having an affair with a muslim lady in a muslim country. Is it true that he can easily divorce his first wife and pay only for three months of maintainence? Is it easy to convert to islam?
2007-04-07
02:50:00
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7 answers
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asked by
Lady D
1
in
Family & Relationships
➔ Marriage & Divorce