Only during sex.
2007-04-06 11:41:23
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answer #1
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answered by Xrissxross 2
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No, this is not true.
The mathematical violation occurred when you canceled the (x-y) on both sides. Since x = y, (x-y) = 0, and dividing by zero is not allowed.
2007-04-06 18:33:28
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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slight misstep in your calculation... its only a small mistake but it is clear that in an equasion like this even the smallest error can lead to a misleading conclusion. 2 does not equal 1 it equals 2... simply put.
2007-04-06 18:39:02
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answer #3
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answered by rj b 1
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No, it's not true because when you were factoring you violated a rule, so 2 doesn't equal 1.
2007-04-06 18:36:38
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answer #4
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answered by ? 4
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Because when you divided by (x-y) on both sides, you basically divided by 0, because you let x = y.
When you divide by 0, everything becomes screwy... Thus the screwy answer :-)
2007-04-06 18:36:25
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answer #5
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answered by Claire 5
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Like Bill explained, you divided by zero. In mathematics when you divide by zero you get infinity. One infinity equals two infinities.
2007-04-06 18:35:59
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answer #6
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answered by Amphibolite 7
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No, you can't cancel (x-y) on both sides because that would mean that you're dividing by zero.
2007-04-06 18:34:39
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Because true loves conquers all, and especially when enthralled in the throes of passion.
2007-04-06 19:02:54
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answer #8
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answered by The Parthian 3
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The cancelling (x-y) step is division by zero, invalidating the "proof".
2007-04-06 18:34:38
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answer #9
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answered by Adam S 4
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>> cancelling (x-y) on both sides,
Because x=y, (x-y)=0, hence you have divided by 0.
2007-04-06 18:34:07
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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