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Let x = y
Multiplying by x,
x^2 = xy
Subtracting y^2,
x^2-y^2 = xy - y
Factoring,
(x-y)(x+y) = (x-y) y
cancelling (x-y) on both sides,
x+y = y
but x = y by assumption, so
y + y = y
2y=y
cancelling y,
2 = 1 Proved.

I wonder why?

2007-04-06 11:30:51 · 10 answers · asked by Ignorant Guru 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

10 answers

Only during sex.

2007-04-06 11:41:23 · answer #1 · answered by Xrissxross 2 · 1 0

No, this is not true.

The mathematical violation occurred when you canceled the (x-y) on both sides. Since x = y, (x-y) = 0, and dividing by zero is not allowed.

2007-04-06 18:33:28 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

slight misstep in your calculation... its only a small mistake but it is clear that in an equasion like this even the smallest error can lead to a misleading conclusion. 2 does not equal 1 it equals 2... simply put.

2007-04-06 18:39:02 · answer #3 · answered by rj b 1 · 0 0

No, it's not true because when you were factoring you violated a rule, so 2 doesn't equal 1.

2007-04-06 18:36:38 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Because when you divided by (x-y) on both sides, you basically divided by 0, because you let x = y.

When you divide by 0, everything becomes screwy... Thus the screwy answer :-)

2007-04-06 18:36:25 · answer #5 · answered by Claire 5 · 0 0

Like Bill explained, you divided by zero. In mathematics when you divide by zero you get infinity. One infinity equals two infinities.

2007-04-06 18:35:59 · answer #6 · answered by Amphibolite 7 · 0 0

No, you can't cancel (x-y) on both sides because that would mean that you're dividing by zero.

2007-04-06 18:34:39 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Because true loves conquers all, and especially when enthralled in the throes of passion.

2007-04-06 19:02:54 · answer #8 · answered by The Parthian 3 · 0 0

The cancelling (x-y) step is division by zero, invalidating the "proof".

2007-04-06 18:34:38 · answer #9 · answered by Adam S 4 · 0 0

>> cancelling (x-y) on both sides,

Because x=y, (x-y)=0, hence you have divided by 0.

2007-04-06 18:34:07 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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