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In some states a married woman who divorces is entitled to 1/2 a mans assets and sometimes alimony when divorced even tho she came into the marriage earning 1/2 as much as the man and had no savings. I can understand this if kids are involved or if it was a long marriage but why should a man who has educated himself and worked hard at his chosen profession so he could earn more have to split his assets with a woman who has contributed far less to the finances of the marriage? Understandably if there are children involved or its a long standing marriage the assets should be split but i can see no reason why a man should have to give up half of everything he has saved and earned over his lifetime to a woman he may only have been married to for a short time.

2007-04-06 08:00:50 · 13 answers · asked by wolfman 6 in Family & Relationships Marriage & Divorce

13 answers

If you have assets worth protecting, then a lawyer and a pre-nup are pretty important stops along the way to the alter I guess.

2007-04-06 08:04:31 · answer #1 · answered by wizjp 7 · 1 0

dont choose the easy way out. when u become married everything becomes one. if u are going into the marriage thinking like that ....Why are u getting married anyways? i know that the day i say i do i make a promise to god and my husband to be faithfull the rest of my life. i couldnt imagine asking my husband for a pre-nup its like u are planning for ur marriage to fail why get married if u think like that ..unless a spouse cheats or is abusive then that is only reason a divorce should happen and yea the spouse that is doing wrong should have to deal w/ the consequences of his/her actions. to me money doesnt mean a thing a come from a family who has millions i never asked for a prenup not thousands like u have millions and i never would think about something like that

2007-04-06 08:57:13 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

In my humble opinion, assets acquired during the period of the marraige should be split 50/50. Assets acquired before hte marriage should belong to the party that brought them in. They weren't earned as community property, so they shouldnt become community property.

And in most cases, that is exactly waht I see happen by the way.

2007-04-06 08:05:52 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

My opinion is just to walk away, I did with out anything and have made it all up & then some. It's a shame that people put so much enrgy and effort into keeping the material things in life rather than caring enough about their own well being. Who needs the hassles, I wanted out of the marriage and did just that, I got out!

2007-04-06 08:09:09 · answer #4 · answered by Jewlz 2 · 1 0

We can all thank the gold diggers and lawyers for this one. No it's not right, especially of the woman has a job to begin with. We should be able to keep what was ours when we entered the marriage.

2007-04-06 08:05:32 · answer #5 · answered by Rick 5 · 0 0

No. She should be entitled to half of the marital assets. Things that belonged to one or the other prior to the marriage should be off limits, however it doesn't always work that way.

~

2007-04-06 08:04:36 · answer #6 · answered by fitzovich 7 · 0 0

If the husband had the house before the marriage, he should be allowed to keep it. It is anything acquired by the couple during the marriage that will be considered community property and split between the two.

2016-05-18 22:22:58 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

if there are no kids involved i dont think the woman should be entitled to half of anything thats not hers, the man worked for what he had, she didnt

2007-04-06 08:06:35 · answer #8 · answered by A Guy 3 · 0 0

im a woman age 34 your intitled to her half to 50/50 unless you can come to an agreement

2007-04-06 08:08:02 · answer #9 · answered by jennifer e 2 · 0 0

I agree... in many situations the law fails to protect the innocent or serve justice on the guilty... a shame... but it depends on the situation...

2007-04-06 08:28:04 · answer #10 · answered by michael 6 · 0 0

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