So, you can raise i to any exponent, and you can raise a number to an imaginary power. But, can you raise an imaginary number to an imaginary power? For example, what is i^i?
2007-04-05
11:45:24
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9 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Mathematics
You're right Puggy... I just went digging in the answers and found it. (I didn't know how to derive this one, honest.)
Well, I see two posters here have the correct answer. Scythian, I just tossed a coin. If you call it correctly, you get the 10 points. :)
2007-04-05
12:00:43 ·
update #1
This, too, is an old one. We know that, by Euler's formula,
e^(π i) = -1
So, we can do the following steps:
e^((1/2)π i) = i
e^(-(1/2)π) = i^i
The numerical value for e^(-(1/2)π) is 0.2078795...
A more fun variation on this is the expression for π:
π = -√(-1) Log(-1)
Or that since
π i = Log(-1)
it could be said that the circumference of a circle of diameter of imaginary i is Log(-1). Extending this further, we can say that
π i x = Log((-1)^x)
and it turns out that the function Log((-1)^x) is a sawtooth function that ramps from - π i to π i endlessly with a period of 2. A circumference of minus π i? Anybody know what does that mean?
Addendum: If you tossed a quarter, I call heads. Otherwise, I call tails.
2007-04-05 11:55:17
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answer #1
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answered by Scythian1950 7
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This has been asked in the past. The answer is actually a real number. I'm sure soon you'll have an answerer that can elaborate on this.
2007-04-05 18:52:36
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answer #2
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answered by Puggy 7
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i^i is -1
for example if you take a square root of a negative number you have to take the negative out before you can take the square root...the symbol you use is i and i = -1 so i^i is -1^-1 which is -1 mulitplyed by -1 which is -1
2007-04-05 20:17:04
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answer #3
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answered by Shela 2
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Taking Euler's formula
e^(ix) = cos(x) + isin(x)
and substituting (pi/2), for x, one arrives at
e^{i(pi/2)} = i
and
ln(i) = i(pi/2)
If both sides of the first equation are raised to the power i, remembering that i^2 = -1, one obtains this identity:
i^i = e^{i ln(i)} = e^{-pi/2} = 0.2078795763...
2007-04-05 18:54:46
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answer #4
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answered by pyaarmusafir 2
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i^i = 0.207879576
If you start ut of Euler's Formula:
e^(ix) = cos x + i * sin x
Therefore, when you sub in pi/2 for x you have:
e^(i * pi/2) = i
Which can be expressed as ln(i) = i * pi/2
When both sides are raised to the power of i (remember that i^2 = -1) you have:
i^i = e^(i ln(i)) = e^(-pi/2) = ~0.207879576
I hope this helps
2007-04-05 19:05:12
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answer #5
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answered by Darkness1089 2
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i is used to somewhat rationalize square roots of a negative number. i is said to = -1
so i^i would be 1/i
i^i = 1/i
:)
2007-04-05 19:21:22
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answer #6
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answered by Trevor Smith 3
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I tried it on my TI-89 calculator and it gave me an error message.
2007-04-05 19:01:41
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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That's an interesting question. I never thought of it.
2007-04-05 18:48:23
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answer #8
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answered by its_victoria08 6
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Since i = sqrt(-1), it follows that i^2 = -1
i^3 = -i
i^4 =1
2007-04-05 18:49:05
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answer #9
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answered by dogsafire 7
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