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They only became what we call "Indians" after they migrated.

If it is so, it means there are many different tribes in America back then, not only a single tribe? But how do you explain the fact that they all share the same gene?

2007-04-04 17:10:45 · 12 answers · asked by Ron 1 in Arts & Humanities History

12 answers

"Indians"; or "native americans" if you are politically correct, is equivalent to "caucasians". The word refers to a general ethnic group, which do of course share many genetic characteristics. But just as there are Germans, French, Swedish, etc. within "caucasian", there are Cherokee, Souix, etc. within "indian".

2007-04-04 17:15:54 · answer #1 · answered by juicy_wishun 6 · 0 1

You might as well ask how can the Danes and Germans be considered two different countries when they have "the same gene." Tribe isn't a genetic term, it more of a political term. And outside the royal line of Egypt, it is pretty rare to find a society of pure inbreeders (and even that didn't last), that aren't forced into it by geography. You've fallen in a false belief, that the inhabitants of the Americas were unchanging prior to 1492. As if the Inuit, Hopi, or Chippewa showed up and only married within the "tribe" for the next ten thousand or so years. Whatever theory you accpet for arrivals, it still would be a rather small population, to begin with, and given years of intermarriage, war, etc. It is almost inevitable that such a relatively isolated group would share most of the same ancestors.

As for why they bagged on you saying "indian native American", it was probably because it's redundant, most of the time someone would say either Indian (which is inaccurate as they aren't from India, and most aren't even from the West Indies) or say Native American (which let's face it only really bothers people purposely picking a fight, by deliberately using this term instead of Native born American to denote those born in the U.S. or the Americas)

2007-04-04 17:31:05 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

1. The most accurate term would be indigenous American. The name Indian came about because Columbus thought he was in the part of Asia then known as the Indies. The term native simply means someone born in a particular country, not necessarily one of the original inhabitants.

2. The indigenous peoples of America are divided into many tribes and nations. They may share some genetic material largely because the Americas became relatively isolated from the rest of the world after the Ice Age ended and the land bridge connecting America to Asia disappeared beneath the waters of the Bering Strait.

2007-04-04 17:17:59 · answer #3 · answered by Cacaoatl 3 · 0 1

At the time Europeans came to America, there were hundreds of Indian tribes. the Iroquois, the Souix, the Comanche, the apache, the those who build tepees, those who build adobe buildings on the side of cliffs. More different tribes than I can name.

The basic theory is that way back when all of these tribes started out as one group of people that came to the Americas through a land bridge from what is now Russia, to Alaska. From this point on, the expanded out and southward, populating two entire continents. Because of this all Indians will share a common set of genes. I do not know if this is at a more common percent than other of the world populations.

The environment and landscape each new group expanded into was new and unique, so new and different life styles were developed to live best in each area. Thus, Indians on the high plains were nomadic following bison for food. Thus, The Iroquois Indians in the north east forests build large log cabins. Overtime these environmental groups led to the development of Tribes. A group of people who shared the same lifestyle, and lived together.

Each tribe had its own name for itself, the modern names like "Apache" or "Cherokee" are how these names turned out in English, accurate or not.

The term Indian was applied to these native peoples of America when Columbus thought he had landed in India (across the world). the Europeans considered all the different tribes "savages" and grouped them all together as Indians.

Native Americans is the term used in our politically correct society to refer to the whole group of people here before Columbus, because we can't let History be History.

2007-04-04 17:28:04 · answer #4 · answered by Mottled Dove 2 · 0 1

It is Native American. The spanish just called them "Indians" because they thought they had reached India. Since they actually reached America, "Indian" became innaccurate. In history, there were thousands of different tribes, though I think there are only about a hundred tribes today. And each tribe spoke a different language. And I don't know about the same gene, but I know some of the tribes were descendants from Siberia.

2007-04-04 17:25:21 · answer #5 · answered by bamagrad07 2 · 0 1

Native American

2007-04-04 17:15:15 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Blame it on Christopher Columbus, the 1st eu who heavily found 'usa'. He theory he had are available in the time of 'The Indies' (i.e. area of Asia) in his seek for the back thank you to China and The Indies. a approach or the different the call caught, as additionally the Caribbean islands are called The West Indies.

2016-11-07 06:25:48 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

You mean the same DNA tracings, at least most of us. The Ojibwe have DNA tracings that match up to the stone age Solutreans from Europe. The others came over in at least 3-4 waves in the las15-30,000 years over the Bering Strait ice bridge..

2007-04-05 09:30:58 · answer #8 · answered by Its not me Its u 7 · 0 0

its just Native American, and who told you they all have the same genes? there was many tribes in America, and i doubt every Native American shares the same gene pool.

2007-04-04 17:14:03 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

i'm part indian...i'm part Crow...thats a indian tribe

2007-04-04 17:13:48 · answer #10 · answered by tooba ash 3 · 0 1

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