2007-04-04 16:53:10 · 7 answers · asked by browneyedbeautifulbeauty 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Yes. For all your x values, there's only 1 y value.
2007-04-04 16:56:43 · answer #1 · answered by hyungbinkim 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
That is a function, because
f(-2) = 0
f(2) = 1
f(4) = 2
f(6) = 3
f(8) = 4
That is, for two real numbers a and b, if f(a) = f(b) then a = b. As you can see, each element maps to one value.
2007-04-04 23:57:42 · answer #2 · answered by Puggy 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, there's not two x's or first values that share the same y or second value
2007-04-04 23:57:41 · answer #3 · answered by kerbourchardalan 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, as long as each value of x is paired with only one y.
2007-04-04 23:58:49 · answer #4 · answered by Kathleen K 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yup
2007-04-05 00:00:32 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, because no first element of any pair is used twice.
2007-04-04 23:58:28 · answer #6 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
it is a function because no two points have the same x-coordinates.
2007-04-04 23:57:13 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋