It's false because you can't take the log of zero.
2007-04-04 14:56:27
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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log pi(0) = 0 is also pi^0 = 0, but any number to the 0 power is 1.
2007-04-04 15:08:26
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answer #2
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answered by TopSpin 5
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log pi(0)=log(0)
log (0)=1 because 10^0=1. x^0 will always equal 1.
2007-04-04 15:04:14
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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any number with zero exponent is equal to 1.
if you have log(base pi) 0 = 0 is wrong, it should be:
log(base pi) 1 = 0, to rewrite this in exponent form it will be:
pi^0 = 1
2007-04-04 14:57:35
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answer #4
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answered by jeffdeg 2
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The statement doesn't make any sense. For all I know pi(0) is some function of a variable pi that is evaluated at zero.
2007-04-04 14:57:14
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answer #5
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answered by cattbarf 7
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log pi not = 0
Look at the graph of y = log x; then note that
log[0] is not zero
2007-04-04 14:58:06
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answer #6
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answered by kellenraid 6
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in exponential form, it is pi ^ 0 = 0 (and this is never correct!)
the correct one is log pi(1) = 0
2007-04-04 14:56:28
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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In mathematics, a logarithm of a number x in base b is a number n such that x = bn, where the value b must be neither 0 nor a root of 1.
2007-04-04 14:56:27
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answer #8
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answered by ? 2
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It is true, anything times 0 is 0.
2007-04-04 14:57:55
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answer #9
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answered by dwinbaycity 5
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bear in mind that each and every thing upon the earth is shifting with the earth's rotation. which means the canon is shifting as right now because the exterior below it, and so is the canon ball. The kinetic capacity in the canon ball will keep it in it really is action, notwithstanding it is going to decelerate as quickly because it really is fired into the ambience.
2016-12-03 07:32:47
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answer #10
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answered by ? 4
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