In ancient history there were many wars between the Greeks and th Persian empire. Why did Persians lose almost everytime despite vast personal advantages? Is it because they utilized slaves and mercenaries who were not very motivated?
2007-04-04 13:38:21 · 5 answers · asked by Rongfred K 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
The Hoplites were victorious for one reason only....the phalanxe. The light formations of the Persians were no match. It took the more mobile Roman legions to take advantage of the phalanxes' weakness, ie, not being able to quickly turn to meet flank or rear attacks. Look at the Spartans at Thermopolye, outdone by a rear attack.
The mixed formations of the Persian army were not coordinated enough to conduct flanking movements, let alone bring their superior numbers to bear.
2007-04-04 17:47:28 · answer #1 · answered by Its not me Its u 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Luck had a lot to do with it, also the Greeks were fighting on their land a lot so they got to choose the battle field.
Persian military focused on lightly armed infantry supported by archers. The Greeks used phalanxes, with almost no missile weapons except peltests (javelin throwers with small shields).
2007-04-04 13:50:35 · answer #2 · answered by Steven 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Let my just add to the comments above, that it is totally different to fight for your country and your freedom (like the Greeks) and to fight for imperialistic purposes (like the Persians).
2007-04-06 07:00:45 · answer #3 · answered by tadalos 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the person who wrote history after many of these wars was herudat. he was just a lying historian.
2016-03-07 21:05:18 · answer #4 · answered by tony m 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
probably because how else can they loose to greeks, greeks r losers
2007-04-07 07:14:35 · answer #5 · answered by I_got_the_wow_effect 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋