Not very unfair when you consider the circumstances.
As far as the west was concerned, none of the war was fought on German soil. It was fought in Belgium and France.
Germany was largely responsible for the war.
Grievances? Germany's real grievance was having lost the war!
2007-04-04 09:37:53
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Hello!
The Treaty of Versailles, 1919, was highly unfair to Germany. The treaty in fact laid the foundation for WW II. The Allies, having won WW I, put down innumerous points which were highly controversial. The main aim of the Treaty was to humiliate the Axis powers, & primarily Germany.
Furthermore, the Treaty was so designed that a big portion of Germany would be governed & overwhelmed by Slavs. The Slavs, who were a minority in Germany before WW II, were now the ruling class. The reparations which played a major role in financing the UK were another cause of concern. The already bankrupt Germans were forced to pay the reparations to the UK; which in turn was paid to the USA, since the USA was the lender of money to the entire war effort. Quite interestingly, the USA was funding post WW I development of Germany. The money coming from the USA was used by Adolf Hitler to slowly build his omnious Nazi Army. Once the USA stopped funding Germany, Germany was unable to pay the UK & UK was unable to pay the USA. This was the precursor to the Great Depression of the 1930's.
Coming back to the question: One can clearly notice that the Treaty was highly biased, & this bias was the main cause of the next war to come. I strongly beleive that Germany was pushed to the wall & made to react.
Regards,
Vinay
2007-04-04 03:26:57
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answer #2
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answered by swimmaholik 3
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to some human beings this treaty regarded unfair, yet to really understand the answer to this question, only imagine, in case you'll, what words and what situations the Germans (and the Austrian-Hungarian Monarchy) would have imposed on the losers of the excellent warfare. The Germans and their Austrian-Hungarian allies were no more suitable honest, thoughtful, or understanding than those who imposed the Treaty of Versailles on Germany. This became the nature of Imperialism in 1918, and Hitler and the Nazis in problem-free words duplicated and imposed similar unfair treaties on the peoples of different eu international locations (from 1938-1945) who themselves did not impose the situations of the Treaty of Versailles on Germany. Hitler became no "champion of the undesirable, oppressed German human beings" - he became an oppressor.
2016-10-17 23:06:45
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answer #3
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answered by ? 4
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One of the main criticisms of the Versailles Treaty is that Germany was forced to accept responsibility for starting the First World War.
By allocating 'blame' to Germany for the war, it allowed the allied powers to hold Germany morally and financially culpable and therefore force Germany to not only surrender her position as a European power, but to deprive her of her colonies, and force Germany to accept reparations.
It can be argued that the Question of War guilt should have been shared by all the major European powers. By blaming Germany for the war, it overlooked the role of Britain, France and Russia in creating a situation that lead to war.
Britain was not held accountable for her own naval armaments race against Germany or that Britain had promised Japan the German colonies in the Pacific if Japan declared war on Germany.
France was not held accountable for a national policy of revenge against Germany for the 1871 defeat and German annexation of Alsace-Lorraine. France and Russia were not held accountable for the alliance system against Germany.
Russia was not held accountable for her own support of Serbia and her own mobilisation of her troops against Austria-Hungary that led to German involvement.
It was argued that Germany was made a scapegoat for the war - when all that Germany had really done was to defend her own interests and her own borders.
Depends on your point of view.
2007-04-04 03:22:53
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answer #4
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answered by Big B 6
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1. unjustly blamed for the start of the war in the first place
2. made to pay all reparations including the Allies which bankrupt the nation and a cause for the Depression to become worldwide
3. occupation by Allied forces until 1924 without proper sustenance for the innocent to survive
4. beside the reparation it destroyed the German economy
by limiting their trading of imports and exports thus giving rise to radical movements withn Germany to hinder the inept Weimar republic
5. Germany had no say as to their method of paying reparations even if they could do so
2007-04-04 05:00:38
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answer #5
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answered by Dave aka Spider Monkey 7
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Not. It is normal deals like that get made after any war. And it didn't do much good as not even a generation later WWII started...again...at the end a similar treaty was made.
2007-04-04 03:19:58
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answer #6
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answered by Puppy Zwolle 7
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dont mess with germany!!!
2007-04-04 03:30:24
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answer #7
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answered by Mikey 1
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