2007-04-04 00:45:27 · 4 answers · asked by sandy 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Even then, I'd doubt that you could say any country was completely speaking any one language. I'm sure there were pockets of Saxon speakers in Wales, but for all intents and purposes, Wales would have been termed completely Welsh speaking.
2007-04-04 01:28:03 · answer #1 · answered by WolverLini 7 · 0⤊ 3⤋
I don't know
Certainly the Romans settled in Wales, so I imagine Latin and 2000 year-old Welsh were both spoken then.
I don't know how isolated the 1500 years ago Welsh were from Saxons.
Just before the Norman conquest, 1000 years ago, what did Welsh churchmen speak? Medieval Latin?
It's a good question and I look forward to reading the answers.
2007-04-04 02:30:00 · answer #2 · answered by rosie recipe 7 · 0⤊ 3⤋
Welsh was one language then.
Old English, the mixture between Latin and Germanic
elements and influences was prevalent at the time.
Welsh (one dialect of Gaelic) was already contested
before the invasion of William the Conquerer in 1066.
So, I doubt that Wales was simply and exclusively
Welsh or Old English-speaking at the time but the Norman
conquest certainly intensified the linguistic conflict.
You are welcome
2007-04-04 02:10:12 · answer #3 · answered by saehli 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
It was probably a completly welsh speaking country 129 years ago.
I know ireland up until about 150 years ago was at least a 75% irish speaking country.
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2007-04-04 00:50:52 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋