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Please list reliable sources from the internet, if you have any!
Also, please do not guess if you don't know! I need 100% correct answers. Thank you.

2007-04-03 14:41:07 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

4 answers

Because most of the countries speak Spanish or Portugese which are languages that have their roots in Latin unlike English which comes mainly from the Teutonic languages of Northern Europe

2007-04-03 18:59:41 · answer #1 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 1 0

When Spain first came to the Americas, The Roman-Catholic church was in control and Latin was the language of the church... hence Latin America...

2007-04-03 21:48:16 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Since the Spanish "invaded" Mexico century's ago, and they were Catholics, the Catholic Bishops, priests, and monks all spoke in "Latin" because that was the language of the church.
I presume that is why it is "labeled "as such. Much like the
american indian was called "Indian", because people were
looking for a west passage to India for trade.

2007-04-03 22:02:20 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

It is because they speak Spanish which is a Latin based language like French and Italian
Frenchmen and Italians are sometimes refered to as "Latins"

2007-04-03 21:57:47 · answer #4 · answered by October 7 · 0 1

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