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assume a penny is 1mm thick.
1. if you had 1 mole of pennies, how high would the stack measure in mm?
2. what is that in feet? (remember factor label).

2007-04-03 12:30:36 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

For the second one, take the mm and divide by 2.54 to get it in inches. Then, divide by 12 to get it in feet.

2007-04-03 12:35:02 · answer #1 · answered by kash 3 · 0 0

A mole is a quantity of 6.02 x 10^23. So if you had one mole of pennies and they were each 1 mm thick, then the stack would just be 6.02 x 10^23 mm.

To convert this to feet, use the conversion factors:

6.02 x 10^23 mm * (1 cm / 10 mm) * (1 inch / 2.54 cm) * (1 ft / 12 in) =
(6.02 x 10^23) * (1/10) * (1/2.54) * (1/12) =
(6.02 x 10^22) * (1/2.54) * (1/12) =
0.198 x 10^22 = (rounding off)
1.98 x 10^22 feet

2007-04-03 12:38:08 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

1 mole = 6.02 x 10^23 of something

So...

6.02 x 10^23 pennies x 1 mm per penny = 6.02 x 10^23 mm

1000 mm = 3.2808399 feet

6.02 x 10^23 mm / 1000 mm * 3.2808399 feet = 1.975 x 10^21 feet

2007-04-03 12:39:45 · answer #3 · answered by MathHelp 1 · 0 0

6.022X10^23*1mm=6.022X10^23mm
For your second question just divide this number 24 (the approximate number of millimeters in an inch).

2007-04-03 12:37:23 · answer #4 · answered by bruinfan 7 · 0 0

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