WWII question?

Question

Describe the Munich Conference of 1938 and Chamberlain’s policy appeasement. Why were so many British willing to appease Hitler? What was the result of the Munich conference?

Can someone please give me a logical answer I seem to be blanking on this.

Answer 1

The Munich Conference of 1938 was the ultimate policy of appeasement by Chamberlain . Chamberlain agreed to acquiesce because he knew they were not ready to fight Germany . They agreed that Germany could acquire the Sudentland and stay out of the rest of Czechoslovakia. The British people and Chamberlain truly believed they had peace in their time. But their hopes would be shatterered with the Germans taking over the rest of Czechoslovakia in 1939 and signed a non-aggression pact with the USSR and invade Poland to ignite WW 2.

Answer 2

The British endured much loss during WW1 and wanted avoid was as much as possible. Chamberlain did not think Germany had what it took to start another war with its weakend economy and political structure after the first war. He decided he would wait before taking another gamble with his people.

The Munich agreement took place on on Sept 29 1938. Desperate to avoid war, and anxious to avoid an alliance with Joseph Stalin and the Soviet Union, Neville Chamberlain and Edouard Daladier agreed that Germany could have the Sudetenland. In return, Hitler promised not to make any further territorial demands in Europe.

The Munich Agreement was popular with most people in Britain because it appeared to have prevented a war with Germany. However, some politicians, including Winston Churchill and Anthony Eden, attacked the agreement. These critics pointed out that no only had the British government behaved dishonorably, but it had lost the support of Czech Army, one of the best in Europe.