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in the "many universes" view of quantum mechanics, what would happen if an event occured with an irrational probability?

For example if the probability of an event occuring is 1/pi, no matter how many parallel universes are created, the probability would not be represented accurately.

How would the "many universes" theory explain this?

2007-04-03 07:08:27 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Physics

4 answers

Cannot happen.

Probability is defined as P(s = x) = n(s = x)/N; where n(s = x) is the number of ways to succeed and N is the total number of possible outcomes (success and failure) for each trial (event).

As N is the number (frequency) of possible event outcomes, it exists only as rational whole numbers. You can't have a partial outcome. That is to say, N cannot be an irrational number like pi.

PS: Gene (below) is right...to a certain extent. Bell, Poisson, Weibull, etc. curves are continuous function curves.

But, and this is a BIG BUT, these curves were historically derived from frequency curves based on the frequency of discrete observed events (whole numbers). Although, 44.3 events of some outcome, for example, is feasible from a continuous distribution function, the underlying distribution curve is based solely on whole numbers of observed events.

Using an irrational number for N makes little sense because it implies no fixed value for total possible outcomes. Further, pi implies the total possible outcomes is between 3 and 4, so that the total possible outcomes includes a partial outcome, a partial event. I have no clue what a partial event might be...something either happens or it doesn't. A partial event is like being partially pregnant.

PPS: The answer implying multiple universes are not discrete has no theoretical basis I know of that claims this. In fact, the only fields of physics that even allow for multiple universes are those that use higher dimensions to derive their results...like string/M theory. And these philosophies posit discrete, not continuous, multiple universes. [See source.]

There is reason for the discrete result. Energy, the stuff universes are made of (mass/energy), is discrete, not continuous. That is, energy exists only in multiples of whole numbers E = ne; where n is the number and e is a very small fundamental unit of energy. This occurs because of the wave nature of mass/energy. All waves, even sound waves, have discrete frequencies they can exist at.

We don't see this discreteness in the macro world because the energies E are so large, the n's are unobservable. But at the subatomic level, n's for various subatomic particles (e.g., electrons) have been observed. In any case, sub or macro world, the wave characteristics of mass/energy dictate that the multiuniverses will be discrete if they exist at all.

2007-04-03 07:22:16 · answer #1 · answered by oldprof 7 · 1 0

"many worlds" does not refer to discrete universes (like on sliders), but a continuum of possibilities that blend into each other to the degree to which they are said to be "correlated". All the worlds as a whole are described by a single continuous universal wave function. The illusion of the single classical world that you inhabit is an artifact of the high degree of decorrelation at macroscopic scales.

2007-04-03 22:38:57 · answer #2 · answered by Dr. R 7 · 1 0

In probability, there are no irrational values. That's because the definition of any probability is defined by the rules of counting with integers. The definition is:

(number of possible ways of success) / (total number of possible outcomes.)

This quantity is always rational.

2007-04-03 14:19:33 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Who says a probability cannot be a never ending decimal number ? Probabbilty based on being between two numbers on a bell curve does not require whole numbers.

2007-04-03 14:25:43 · answer #4 · answered by Gene 7 · 1 0

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