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i need some verification, are kants analogies, especially the 3rd analogy referring to how objects have permanent existence even when we're not perceiving them? (opposed to berkeley who thinks objects disappear when we arent perceiving them)

2007-04-02 19:25:45 · 2 answers · asked by whitelampshade 2 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

2 answers

I only know some of Kant's theories and stuff, but this had some information about his third analogy of experience that might help
http://www.bu.edu/wcp/Papers/TEth/TEthMogg.htm

Hope it's of use, and good luck with whatever it's for...

2007-04-02 19:33:45 · answer #1 · answered by firefromabustedgun 3 · 0 0

Eeep!
That's not Berkeley's position!

You appear to be thinking...

There once was a man who said God
Must think it exceedingly odd
If it turns out this tree
Won't continue to be
When there's no-one around in the quad.

He considers, rather, that since existence requires an observer...

Sir, your puzzlement's odd
For I am always around in the quad.
So therefore my tree
Will continue to be
Since observed by, yours faithfully, God.

... this is a proof for the existence of God.

(But of course it isn't quite as simple as that, either: URL)

Kant, on the other hand...
"All substances, insofar as they can be perceived in space as simultaneous, are in thoroughgoing interaction"

Seems to be suggesting that in effect since objects continually affect each other.
(Were would wallpaper be without the wall, the apple without the tree?) then, all objects can be considered, in Berkeley's terms, of observing each other, and the absence of one thing or "substance" would indeed be "noticed".

2007-04-03 02:59:36 · answer #2 · answered by Pedestal 42 7 · 0 0

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