2007-04-02 06:02:51 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
2 X 16 = 32
2007-04-02 06:08:42 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
2 Ã 2 Ã 2 Ã 2 Ã 2 = 32
2007-04-03 03:36:28 · answer #2 · answered by Pranil 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
2 x 2 x 2 x 2x 2 =32
2007-04-03 23:45:19 · answer #3 · answered by harshad 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Using the seven-segment digital number design, put two 2's next to each other. Now move the lower-left vertical segment of the first 2 to the lower-right position to turn the 2 into a 3.
2007-04-02 13:12:03 · answer #4 · answered by ? 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
32/2 = 16
same as 2 x 16 =32
using it in powers it will be
2^5
2007-04-02 13:13:10 · answer #5 · answered by jay gal 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If you flip 2, or turn it upside down, it becomes 5.
So, 2 to the power flipped 2, that is 5, is equal to 32.....:D
2007-04-02 13:18:50 · answer #6 · answered by Bubblez 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
y = 2 ^ (log base 4 (1024))
This expression contains two 2's.
we know that log base 4 (1024) = 5
y = 2^5 = 32
2007-04-02 13:12:08 · answer #7 · answered by Nishit V 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
cool puzzle
before chossing best ans do tell us the ans
2007-04-05 12:42:35 · answer #8 · answered by chris 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Impossible......................
Yah but one 3 and one2 definately make 32. :))
2007-04-05 11:10:30 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Can you be more specific? Can we use other digits or what?
2007-04-02 13:13:18 · answer #10 · answered by soelo 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋