Suppose the finite set A is the range of a sequence (a_n). If a_n -> a, then a is not a limit point of A, because finite sets have no limit points. It follows there exists a neighborhood V of a that contains at most 1 element of A. Since a_n -> a, for sufficiently large n all a_n are in V, which implies a_n=a. Therefore, (a_n) is eventually constant, there exists a k such that a_n = a for every n>=k.
If (a_n) is eventually constant, then (a_n) is trivially convergent.
So, if (a_n) has a finite range, then (a_n) converges if and only if it is eventually constant.
2007-04-02 09:16:42
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answer #1
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answered by Steiner 7
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A sequence with a finite range will converge iff it is eventually constant.
2007-04-02 13:24:28
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answer #2
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answered by mathematician 7
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what do you mean with "finite range" ?
do you mean , there are only a fintite number of terms ?, do you mean that each term is finite ( bounded ) .... mysteries
2007-04-02 11:34:17
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answer #3
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answered by gjmb1960 7
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