WHY ALL OF THEM ARE ANSWERING FOOLISHLY?
IF A BALL HITS THE HELMET BEHIND THE WICKET KEEPER THE 5 RUNS WILL BE INCLUDED IN THE PENALTIES WHICH IS A EXTRA.
I WILL SAY THE RIGHT THEORY,
LET THE TWO BATSMEN BE a, b
ON THE FIRST BALL a HITS THE BALL AND RUNS THREE RUNS AND THE FIELDER ATTEMPTS FOR A RUN OUT THE BALL GOES FOR OVERTHROW FOUR RUNS BUT THE UMPIRE FIND THAT a BATSMAN HAD RUN ONE SHOT SO THE a BATSMAN GOT HIS SIX RUNS AND SCORED HIS CENTURY.THE TEAM STILL WANTS ONE RUN.
NOW THE b BATSMAN HITS SIX ON THE LAST BALL AND THE TEAM WON THE MATCH AND HE TOO COMPLETED HIS CENTURY.
2007-04-05 20:46:33
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answer #1
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answered by ramsundar 5
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Batsman A takes a single off the first ball remaining. The fielder shys at the stumps, misses but hits the helmet behind the wicket-keeper, getting 5 more runs to the total for hitting a foreign object on the field.
Scores tied, and Batsman B is on strike.
Batsmen B smashes it for 6.
Both batsmen have 100, and the game is won!
Do I win a prize?
2007-04-01 23:03:42
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answer #2
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answered by Crikey 2
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The first batsman hit the ball and run for a run. The ball deflects to the helmet kept near the wick keeper before fielded. The batsman gets 6 runs and completes his century. When the next batsman faces the next ball, he hits a six and complete his century too and the team wins.
2007-04-02 07:04:57
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answer #3
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answered by vakayil k 7
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first of all the striker tries to hit the ball behind the keeper, but luckily the ball hits the helmet which is behind the keeper.
(If the ball hits the helmet,which is behind the keeper, the batsman gets 5 runs)as the ball hits the helmet, the batsman takes a single tand completes his century(5 runs - helmet+ the single).
Now the team needs just 1 run to win and the last bastman who is on 94, hits an sixer and gets his century and the team win.
2007-04-01 21:52:24
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answer #4
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answered by Indian_P 2
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the 1st ball...batsman 1 hits and runs.....and due to consecutive overthrows he completes 6 runs by running and also goes on for 7th run when he is run out ruled by umpire. But he has 6 completed 6 runs,so thats his century. As it was 7th run,so batsman hav changed ends as they do for odd number of runs.
Now other batsman on strike.He is on 94. 1 run to win. he will hit a six and complete his century.
2007-04-02 01:25:33
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answer #5
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answered by i m gr8 3
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First batsman hits 3 runs the fielders give 4 overthrows the second batsman is on strike and hits a six am i right or am i right
2007-04-01 23:15:40
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answer #6
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answered by tBAgmonster 3
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The guy gets six runs then gets run out, then strike gets changed and the guy on 94 has to hit a 6 of the last ball...hehe
2007-04-01 21:38:48
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answer #7
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answered by Str8 R0ller 2
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easy ... one bolwer has already gone of injured in the match ... he left with one ball left ... he then returns and has one ball left to bowl
So, in the last over ... in a limited overs match ... the bowler who's currently bowling, not the injured one, bowls his last ball ... bater A hits a six.
Then ... when the injured bowler comes back on ... they HAVE to change ends ... bowls his last ball ... Batter B hits a SIX ... batting team wins by five runs, both batters have 100* not out!
2007-04-01 23:44:53
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answer #8
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answered by shandog_nz 1
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it can happen if Chinese are playing they'll strike change and no one will know other than the one who is score boarding
please tell me the answer - vaibhavnan@yahoo.co.in its a very interesting question let me see
they can request 4 a strike change
the man on strike runs seven runs but six are counted so strike changes and the other guy hits a six
happy now tell me the correct answer
2007-04-01 21:46:49
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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its a good theory, but i think u have missed on thing, when two teams are on equal scores it doesnt matter how many runs the batter scores to win the game he is only credited with one run even if he hit a six
2007-04-02 01:29:55
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answer #10
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answered by mikey 3
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