English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

I just saw a video about some jurors that found a man innocent based on the 'fact' that there was no income tax law... and no one I know can find one... Has anyone ever heard of this? Is there really a law?

2007-04-01 11:08:18 · 7 answers · asked by Mark Twine 2 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

7 answers

Its a huge argument.

I have read much on this subject and have some good information that describes why the income tax does not apply to many Americans. There is a tax code that is very specific on what is taxable. I was brought up with the idea that the income tax was voluntary. Taxing your labor and wages within the 50 states is unconstitutional. People will say different. But from what I can tell they just don't understand why.

There is much opposition. I don't advocate taking my advice because I don't know your personal circumstance. But given the amount of money and how big the operation of the IRS actually is, it deserves serious debate and shouldn't be just accepted because its a law. Or because it is believed that we supposedly 'need' the tax.

Here's a portion:
Point 1: The federal income tax applies only to one’s “taxable income,” not to all income, and the income tax regulations (e.g. 26 CFR §§ 1.861-1(a)(1), 1.861-8(a)(1), 1.863-1(c)) clearly show that one’s taxable domestic income is to be determined under the rules of 26 USC § 861(b) and the related regulations beginning at 26 CFR § 1.861-8. (Other sections explain when income from outside of the U.S. is taxable.)
Point 2: So why does it matter whether we use those sections to determine our taxable domestic income? Because more than 80 years of statutory and regulatory history prove beyond any doubt that 26 USC § 861(b) and 26 CFR § 1.861-8 show income to be taxable only when it comes from certain types of international or foreign commerce. In other words, contrary to what “everyone knows,” most Americans do not receive taxable income, and do not owe federal income taxes.

2007-04-01 11:34:23 · answer #1 · answered by JL 2 · 1 3

The "video" you saw was fake. Matters of law are determined by the JUDGE, not jury. The jury only gets to determine matters of fact. ie didn't he not file a tax return, not is the tax law legal.

This video has been circulating for some time. It's fake.

Even if it was real the judge would legally be bound to entered a guility verdict. (The jury doesn't actually enter the verdict, but the judge does) Since the judge knows there is legally a tax law he must enter guility verdict if he feels they found him not guilty because of there "not" being a tax law.

This question has been answered numerous times by appeals courts, the US Supreme court, and district courts. Each time the answer is the same, yes there is a tax law. You will goto jail, will not collect $200, and will meet the last person who thought there was no tax law also.

2007-04-01 16:03:33 · answer #2 · answered by caffeyw 5 · 1 1

Of course there is a personal income tax. (Referenced below)

The video you saw was probably the product of a small but vocal group. They are ually label as "tax protesters" but a better label would be "tax deniers".

"Protesting" is a constitutional-protected activity and expected in a thriving democracy.

"Tax deniers" take the stance that the tax laws are invalid; which is fine if there is proper and upheld foundation. Unfortunately they mistate and exagerrate the merits of their arguments. Many people have lost everything believing these arguments were legitimate.

I would recommend finding the original case law that was used for that video and research it. Was it portrayed honestly? Was there unique circumstances? Was it used as precedent in future cases? Or overturned?

There is a lot of misinformation on the internet. Don't be sucked in. Differentiate for yourself what is fact and fiction.

2007-04-01 15:57:53 · answer #3 · answered by gray shadow 6 · 2 0

Yes, there really is personal income tax law. It is allowed by the 16th amendment to the constitution and the IRS is controlled by a variety of laws passed over the past 150 years, starting with the Revenue Act of 1862.

2007-04-01 11:29:07 · answer #4 · answered by James 7 · 2 2

The US Constitution had to be amended to allow for a federal income tax. Do a Y! search with the terms "United States Constitution."

2007-04-01 11:17:05 · answer #5 · answered by regerugged 7 · 1 1

Congress is allowed to impose this tax based on the Constitutional powes given to them.

What you saw was a video displaying jury nullification.

This is when the jury says..you may be guilty but we don't like the law so we won't find you guilty.

Juries can do this...courts don't like it and it is an ethics violation for attorneys to encourage juries to do it.

2007-04-01 11:51:03 · answer #6 · answered by Dr. Luv 5 · 0 1

Whoever says that is lying. They are a quack and a conspiracy theorists. The video you saw was probably not legitimate. The income tax is stated in Title 26 of the United States Code.

2007-04-01 11:22:42 · answer #7 · answered by Encyclopedia Magandaca 2 · 2 3

fedest.com, questions and answers