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Historically speaking, it was the French who first settled on the 'island', but a year later an English explorer claimed it for Britian (unaware of the French presence). Spain acquired the territory from France then placed the Argentine gov't in charge.

2007-03-31 06:19:22 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

9 answers

After World War II, the issue of sovereignty over the Falkland Islands shifted to the United Nations when, in 1964, the islands' position was debated by the UN committee on decolonization. Argentina based its claim to the Falklands on papal bulls of 1493 modified by the Treaty of Tordesillas (1494), by which Spain and Portugal had divided the New World between themselves; on succession from Spain; on the islands' proximity to South America; and on the need to end a colonial situation.

Britain based its claim on its "open, continuous, effective possession, occupation, and administration" of the islands since 1833 and its determination to apply to the Falklanders the principle of self-determination as recognized in the United Nations Charter! Britain asserted that, far from ending a colonial situation, Argentine rule and control of the lives of the Falklanders against their wishes would in fact create one.

2007-03-31 06:46:11 · answer #1 · answered by Retired 7 · 3 0

feels like, from the article, that the individuals who easily stay there could somewhat be self-governing voters of the U.ok., no longer Argentina. so a procedures as who has the lawful good to the Islands, i don't comprehend. apparently the islands have been got here across and named via the British in 1690. It wasn't settled till 1764, and then via the French, no longer the British. The French gave the Islands their "different" call, Îles Malouines (the Spanish replaced this to the extra person-friendly, Las Malvinas.) The British laid declare to the western islands in 1765, twelve years till now the Spanish took over administration from the French. The British have been there till now the Spanish, and subsequently the Argentines, and subsequently are the rightful owners of the Falkland Islands.

2016-11-25 02:17:18 · answer #2 · answered by shimek 3 · 0 0

The vast majority of the Falkland's population thinks that the island belongs to Britain. If the people that live there like it that way, I see no reason to change things. I'm sure Tony Blair is as unimpressed with Argentina's saber rattling as Margaret Thatcher was in 1982.

2007-03-31 06:25:16 · answer #3 · answered by Aaron W 3 · 3 0

Great Brittan has the rights to the Falklands because they have developed them and fought over them in WW I and the 1982 war. Argentina lost their claim in a fair fight in 1982. I doubt France could give a rat's hindquarters about it.

2007-03-31 06:25:44 · answer #4 · answered by Chairman LMAO 6 · 3 0

Realistically, the UK has possession of the islands, and has for quite some time. It is rediculous to try to lay claim to something that someone else owns by claiming "I had it first", or by citing treaties that predate your entire nation by several hundred years.

The Brits had it, the Argentinians tried to take it, the Brits said "no" and kicked their butts, eventually. It belongs to the UK, period.

However, if Argentina were able to invade and take the islands and the Brits backed down, then it would be Argentina's. And England would have no right to claim it is theirs, unless they could take it back, or convince the Argentinians to return it.

2007-03-31 11:16:44 · answer #5 · answered by rohak1212 7 · 0 1

well that,s like asking who has a rightful claim over chips,the british had chips way before the french and the froggies made them thinner and called them french fries(buggers) but they aquired them from the belgians anyway so there....and in any case the spanish tried to take england and we threw chips at them untill their armada of ships sank and we went down there and claimed gibralter so we could hack them off till this day .....not forgetting maradonnas great great great grandaddy who cheated england at football in the 1704 world cup final played on the faulkland islands ,needless to say we told the argies to bugger off as we needed the land to grow potatoes for our chips..when the spanish told us the frenchies had tricked them into buying OUR faulklands we set up camp just off the french coast on a couple of islands called jersey and gurnsey and fried our chips right in front of them when the wind was blowing their way ..........you lot can claim what you want to claim but us brits got you by the nuts LONG LIVE THE GREAT BRITISH INVENTION.....THE HUMBLE CHIP

2007-03-31 06:46:17 · answer #6 · answered by foxy 5 · 0 1

It has been in British hands for a long time. Any original claims are so old it is ridiculous. People have already been killed over this. It is time to let it go. The British have it and if they want to keep it, they should. If they want to give over control, it is up to them.

2007-03-31 06:24:21 · answer #7 · answered by Kevin C 4 · 3 0

I think the people living on the island should decide; and I believe they sided with Britian.

2007-03-31 06:22:46 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 4 0

Since it cannot be independent, then should belong to the nearest land geographically. Britain is far far away from it.
That is just my opinion.

2007-03-31 06:28:47 · answer #9 · answered by Stingray 1 · 0 7

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