2007-03-31 04:22:15 · 10 answers · asked by ern d 2 in Sports ➔ Baseball
If there is less than 2 outs and he would have scored anyway. Again, the rule book states: LOOK AT RULE 10.04 (2).
RUNS BATTED IN
10.04
(a) Credit the batter with a run batted in for every run which reaches home base because of the batter’s safe hit, sacrifice bunt, sacrifice fly, infield out or fielder’s choice; or which is forced over the plate by reason of the batter becoming a runner with the bases full (on a base on balls, or an award of first base for being touched by a pitched ball, or for interference or obstruction).
(1) Credit a run batted in for the run scored by the batter who hits a home run. Credit a run batted in for each runner who is on base when the home run is hit and who scores ahead of the batter who hits the home run.
(2) Credit a run batted in for the run scored when, before two are out, an error is made on a play on which a runner from third base ordinarily would score.
(b) Do not credit a run batted in when the batter grounds into a force double play or a reverse force double play.
(c) Do not credit a run batted in when a fielder is charged with an error because he muffs a throw at first base which would have completed a force double play.
(d) Scorer’s judgment must determine whether a run batted in shall be credited for a run which scores when a fielder holds the ball, or throws to a wrong base. Ordinarily, if the runner keeps going, credit a run batted in; if the runner stops and takes off again when he notices the misplay, credit the run as scored on a fielder’s choice.
2007-03-31 04:29:41 · answer #1 · answered by iwasnotanazipolka 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋
If the error occured and it would be the third out then you would not receive an rbi. If the person would have without the benefit of the error scored then the rbi is given. If the player hit into a double play then no rbi is given.
2007-03-31 20:12:47 · answer #2 · answered by Dave aka Spider Monkey 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
if it's the same play as your other question. NO you don't get an RBI for that because IF the 2nd baseman had made the catch the runner on 3rd would NOT have been able to tag up and score. Would he?
Now, if it had been a deep fly and the outfielder had made the error, then the player on 3rd would have tagged and scored and you get the RBI.
But, again, it depends on the "official scorer" determination.
Sorry to break it to you, but just because i received a thumbs down doesn't make my answer incorrect. Just read iwasnotanazi's 10.04 (2) and make note of the word "ordinarily" which means "if the error had NOT occured"
2007-03-31 11:27:40 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 1⤋
It's possible to get an RBI on a ground out or fly out, as long as (1) it doesn't lead to a double play, and (2) it wasn't the last out of the inning. If your at-bat wouldn't have led to either of those circumstances without the error, then you get the RBI.
2007-03-31 18:07:25 · answer #4 · answered by JerH1 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If your out would not have been the third out to end the inning then it is an rbi. Similar to a sacrifice fly also scores an rbi.
2007-03-31 11:28:02 · answer #5 · answered by lestermount 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
no. the only reason you are not out is because of that error, so it would not be a base hit, hence no RBI. And the run charged to the pitcher would be unearned....but you still got the runner in for your team so it's all good
2007-03-31 11:28:51 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
no because when Ur charged with an error supposedly u were suppose to make the play...
2007-03-31 11:26:22 · answer #7 · answered by mike 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
if you want to call it an RBI do it...i won't tell
2007-04-01 03:17:13 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
yes
2007-04-02 04:24:34 · answer #9 · answered by Mike W 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no
2007-04-04 03:58:42 · answer #10 · answered by Lefty 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋