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I am just wondering if someone suduces another perosn into commiting a murder, and forcing them to commit a murder, would they be resposnble or the person who ACTUALLY commits the murder? Do u think they are responbile for their own actions? In this sitaution, who would u hold responbile and why?

PLEASE GIVE A INTELLIGENT ANSWER

2007-03-30 17:40:39 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Other - Society & Culture

13 answers

They are both guilty. The one who commits the murder has to be guilty, but the one who initiates and pushes one to commit the crime is also guilty of conspiracy to commit murder. both would be guilty, both would be sharing a cell.

why do u ask?

2007-03-30 17:44:20 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I think both of the people are to blame in this situation. the person who suduces someone into commiting murder is assisting a murder. The other person being suduced is blamed b/c they should've know better and not have gone through with a murder. they are definately responsible. if this was a court issue, i'd give both of them time in jail. the person who was assisting the murder by suducing someone else to actually do the crime would have less time. but the person who actually commited the crime would definately have more time in jail just for the fact that they commited a serious crime. even though they were not thinking right doesnt change anything. they should be held responsible for not controlling their actions in a different state of mind. either way they still killed someone. i dont care if they were truly in love, threatened, or tricked, the moment that they had doubts in their mind they shouldve ended the problem

2007-03-30 17:49:16 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Your simple answer is that both offenders are chargeable to murder! Both parties are responsible-if this can be proven! Of course this would depend on the circumstances surrounding the crime. But typically the charge would be considered "Accessory to the Fact",or "Aiding and Abetting" in the conspiracy to commit murder! If someone is coaxing you to commit murder,and you follow through with it-even if you don't....this is basically a Conspiracy to commit Murder charge! And you or the other person(s) are the Co-Conspirator in the crime of Murder! If the person who commits the crime can be proven in a Court of Law to be mentally ill or unstable-this person would likely end up institutionalised! You however would be guilty of the charge of murder,because you took advantage of this persons instability and essentially talked them into doing this crime. Thus-you would be an "Accessory to the Fact" in this crime,and you'll likely be doing hard time for this act. If "both parties" involved-were proven to be of sound mind-then both are essentially guilty of the crime! This wording could be essentially different,depending on whether or not you fall under the Criminal Code of Canada and/or various State and Federal Criminal Statutes"in the United States! Do bare in mind that there are different levels of murder as well...but in your question,I am assuming that you are talking about Murder 1. or Murder in the First Degree! There is also 2nd and 3rd Degree Murder. But? They involve an entirely different set of circumstances...such as accidental,vehicular and/or manslaughter! Also...alot of how this kind of case would play out-also depends on whether the partie's involved are Juvenile or Adult! In Canada for instance...a child under the age of 13 years cannot be held responsible for any crime! And furthermore cannot be deemed an "Adult" until at least the age of 18 years! Unless the Court decides that certain circumstances warrant otherwise-they would be tried in the Juvenile Court System,and probably given a lesser sentence,as opposed to what would be levied out to an Adult! In the U.S.A. a person can be charged and convicted at just about any age. But again this depends on what the various "Circuit Courts" deem to be appropriate in relation to the charges involved,and the circumstances surrounding it! So I hope this answers some of your question! And God forbid! Please don't ever do it...The Errander.

2007-03-30 18:51:52 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I would say it depends on the situation. If one man is holding a gun to another man's head, and will shoot him if he refuses to murder the third guy, then it's the first guy's fault.

If one man offers a large sum of money (say 100 million dollars) to someone else to kill someone, then the second person is responsible, although they both acted unethically.

Where it gets interesting is in situations like Nazi Germany: if the Nazis did not kill their prisoners, they could be tortured/killed by other Nazis. So I think that they are all partially responsible, and sometimes it's impossible to place the blame on one person.

Another example: I saw a TV show where, in the beginning of the show, a father and his daughter released a previously injured bird back into nature. The bird then flew over a crowded street and pooped on a man's hat. The man then went to a convenience store and asked to use the bathroom to clean his hat. The store owner said okay, but not to flush the toilet. The guy cleaned his hat, then used the toilet. He forgot what the store owner said and flushed. The toilet then overflowed. The store owner called his wife to come help clean it up. Her cell phone was getting bad reception, so she went outside so she could understand her husband (the store owner). After walking outside, a chunk of blue ice fell from a plane and killed her. Who/what was responsible for her death? Was it the father and his daughter, cause they released the bird? Was it the plane company, for jettisoning the blue ice over a populated area? Was it the husband, for calling his wife to come help clean up the mess?

The whole point of the example is that sometimes it's impossible to say exactly who was at fault. Obviously somebody screwed up somewhere, or that woman would not have died. Sometimes, also, there is more than one person at fault. In your example, depending on how the person was "forced," they may be responsible for their actions, although the person who forced him would also be responsible.

I hope that helps...I might just be confusing you more... :-P

2007-03-30 17:52:48 · answer #4 · answered by Kate F 3 · 0 0

Everybody has free will. However, some people have very weak wills and are easily duped and coerced into things. Legally, the person who committed the crime would be responsible because when it comes down to it, unless one is found mentally incompetent, he/she committed the crime and is ultimately responsible in the eyes of the law. Morally, the person who did the seducing would be as much at fault especially if he/she knew the other person was weak or would do anything for him/her. Unfortunately, we can't prosecute someone for using a person.

2007-03-30 17:48:03 · answer #5 · answered by Purdey EP 7 · 0 0

Oh my! I personally think that the seducer would have a large role in the action taken. If the actual murderer was mentally handicapped or simply niave, coerced or afraid, they would be especially gullable to a strong personality. They both might be held responsible. If the murderer could prove he was pressured into doing it by and/or for someone else he might get off, but that's a long shot.

2007-03-30 17:46:01 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes

If Person A convences Person B to kill Person C then A and B are both guilty of the crime with B getting an extra charge of being stupid.

Talking/seducing/bribing/blackmailing/etc someone into commiting a crime makes them both guilty

2007-03-30 17:45:04 · answer #7 · answered by Harmon 4 · 0 0

It all depends:
1- The free will of the murderer.
2- His/her level of literacy.
3-The kind of relationship between the murderer and the enticer or "seducer", especially the latter's authority on the first.

Thus the responsibility varies and it ranges from being fully responsible to being a mere tool of the crime.

To conclude, do you think Adam and Eve were not responsible for their eating from the tree?

2007-03-30 18:06:58 · answer #8 · answered by rambahan_1953 3 · 0 0

BOTH are responsible for the MURDER of an individual .. the one who stood by (and planned it, helped the person get away with it, and then helped them get away -- it is called "Accessory" ..... then the person who did the violence is the Murderer).

They will share a cell, until the one who has taken the life of another (without any remorse or concern for those that were left behind, or the victim of their crime) ... is put to death for their crimes.

2007-03-30 18:03:25 · answer #9 · answered by sglmom 7 · 0 0

Both will be charged & go to prison. The seducer will be an accessory to the crime & the one who does the killing will be charged with murder of course. :)

2007-03-30 18:09:23 · answer #10 · answered by lycan_888 2 · 0 0

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