2007-03-30 12:47:13 · 6 answers · asked by anothermauri 4 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
The name Persia was an ancient name, based on the origin of Cyrus the Great in the 500s B.C. It was long out of date. The language is still named after the province of Pars, as farsi. Iran is a cognate of Aryan, and European.
2007-03-30 21:10:15 · answer #1 · answered by Fred 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was changed out of nationalism. Iran resembles Aryan, some ancient war heroic type of people there.
2007-03-30 15:07:14 · answer #2 · answered by JIMMY j 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Read about "the Sykes-Picot Agreement" in wikipedia.It talks about how the english and french divided the middle east into countries. Their influence and power was waning in that region at that time,and they had to reinforce the divisions among the people of the region in order to protect their interests.
2007-03-30 13:18:24 · answer #3 · answered by kevin k 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Its an open debate, but the official change was in 1935 and was to change the image of the country so people wouldn't think of it being an ancient land.
2007-03-30 12:54:24 · answer #4 · answered by Dan M 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Typical third-world trick this name-changing. The Germans don't mind us not calling their country Deutschland, do they?
2007-03-30 17:28:55 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
why you dont like that name.
2007-03-30 12:53:05 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋