Did Tiglath-Pileser's wife call him Tig or Tuk or something?

Question

I know his name was really Tukulti-apal-esharra, but the point remains: would there be intimate, shortened versions of such a name? What about today as a guide: what can Abd-ur-Rahman's wife call him?

It may have been a throne name for him, but the records show that Assyrians in all walks of life had names like this, and also that various Assyrian kings had such names from birth, for example Esarhaddon, Ashur-aha-iddina, 'Ashur has given a brother'. So it won't do for an answer, as I said 'such a name'.

Answer 1

I have it on the highest possible authority that she called him, "Studmuffin."

No, seriously -- According to Herodotus, "oriental" women were forbidden to speak their husband's names. This applied to all women, not just queens. Women were to address their husbands as, "my lord."

Hope this answer helps. Cheers, mate.

Answer 2

The name Tiglath-Pileser was a throne-name — that is, one given to the king on his accession to the throne, rather than a name given at birth. In translation, it means "My Trust is the Heir of EÅ¡arra". It is given in several different forms in historical records. The Bible records him as Tilgath-pilneser (2 Chronicles 28:20) and also as Pul (1 Chronicles 5:26 and 2 Kings 15:19,20). The latter resembles the name Pulu that some chronological sources give him as king of Babylonia. However, none of these sources is from Tiglath-Pileser's own time, so we cannot be sure if it ever was used during the king's life time.
Pulu was a general who took his Assyrian throne name from two more legitimate predecessors. He calls himself a son of Adad-nirari III in his inscriptions, but it is uncertain if this is truthful. He seized the throne in the midst of civil war on 13 Iyyar, 745 BC.
So his wife (or wives) probably called him My Lord or Pulu Honey.

Answer 3

Actually, in the case of the king of an empire, it would not be "his wife" but his wive-S!

And no, they absolutely would NOT have called him by a shortened version of this name.

Why? Because THIS name was not his given name, but the THRONE name that he bore as king, taken on his accession to the throne. Unfortunately, we do not know his given name, so determining a nickname in this case is beyond us.

http://www.ufaqs.com/wiki/en/ti/TiglathPileser%20III.htm

If it helps, you may compare this to the popes -- friends may call them by their birth names and nicknames, but their official name as pope is different, and would not be shortened to any sort of nickname.

Answer 4

Of course I don't have the faintest idea, but this is a truly funny question and deserves some manner of commendation.

btw, you are also the first person I have met who recognizes that half of arabic consonants assimilate. What you have there is slave of the great guy, and I don't know how you might make an endearment out of it.