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How do law enforcement officials draw the line between pure self-defense and manslaughter in the case that an attacker is killed by a defender?

2007-03-29 12:59:30 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

5 answers

Laws vary by state, including the various crimes that make up the broad category of homicide.

Manslaughter is usually a reduced (or "mitigated") drop down from murder. Most commonly, for extreme emotional distress or sufficient provocation.

But, in the self-defense context, use of excessive force in defending yourself is only a partial defense. So, if you used excessive force in self-defense, it would drop from murder to voluntary manslaughter. In contrast to reasonable force, which is a complete defense.

2007-03-29 13:13:31 · answer #1 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0 0

Technically, killing in self defense IS manslaughter. The question is, when is it legally justified?

coragryph gave the best answer to that.

2007-03-29 20:53:29 · answer #2 · answered by STEVEN F 7 · 0 0

I don't believe the police do. I'm fairly certain that a judge would have to review the evidence at an arraignment proceeding and make his own determination.

2007-03-29 20:03:10 · answer #3 · answered by Beardog 7 · 0 0

You will be charged with manslughter if you use deadly force when the attacker uses non deadly force or if the defender was the original attacker.

2007-03-29 20:22:10 · answer #4 · answered by Dr. Luv 5 · 0 1

Well I guess you could tell by the way you kill him or her. The autopsy would probably tell them if it was an overkill or not.

2007-03-29 20:08:15 · answer #5 · answered by Pirate! 2 · 0 0

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