2007-03-29 03:33:25 · 4 answers · asked by 8 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Yes, why not. You can have planes parallel to any other plane and going through a specified point not in the original plane.
Planes parallel to the yz plane have equation x = constant, so in this case it will be the plane x = - 4 and this contains all points (-4, y, z)
2007-03-29 03:39:53 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Yes. Any plane where x is a constant is parallel to the yz plane. To contain the point (-4,0,5) that constant would have to be -4.
The equation of the plane is:
x = -4
2007-03-29 20:14:42 · answer #2 · answered by Northstar 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sure. Just as it takes two points to make a line, it also takes three points to define a plane. So, if you have only one point, you actually have an infinite number of possible planes that contain that point. One of them will be parallel.
2007-03-29 10:42:53 · answer #3 · answered by Cadair360 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course, x= -4,y= 0, z=5.The point is located in xz plane.Draw a plan determined by (-4,0,5) (-4,0,0) and (-4,5,0) and it will be paralel with yz.
2007-03-29 10:47:02 · answer #4 · answered by radu 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋