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a. 3/16
b. 13/16
c. 1/32
d. 31/32

2007-03-28 16:38:19 · 5 answers · asked by elona 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

5 answers

P (five tails) = 1/32, so the answer is d.

2007-03-28 16:41:36 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The answer is d. Use the rule of complements:

P(at most 4 tails) = 1 - P(5 tails) = 1 - 1/2^5 = 32/32 - 1/32 = 31/32

2007-03-28 23:42:48 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

P(at most 4 tails) =
1 - P(5 tails) =
1 - (1/2)^5 =
31/32

2007-03-28 23:44:23 · answer #3 · answered by Helmut 7 · 1 0

choice d. 31/32

you cannot have have 5 tails. probability of 5 tails =
1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/32

therefor probability of at most 4 tails = 1 - 1/32 = 31/32

2007-03-28 23:43:38 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

P(at most 4 tails) = P(0 tails) + P(1 tail) + P(2 tails) + P(3 tails) + P(4 tails)
this follows a binomial distribution with probability of success(tail shows) .5

so you have

P(T = 0) = 1(.5)^0 *(.5)^5
P(T = 1) = 5_C_1 (.5^1) (.5^4)
...

p(t <=4) = .5^5(1 + 5 + 10 + 10 + 5)
= 1/32(31) = 31/32

2007-03-28 23:45:48 · answer #5 · answered by metalluka 3 · 0 0

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