Let u = ln x, du = 1/x dx.
∫(e to b) (ln x / x) dx
= ∫(1 to b) (u du)
= (b^2 - 1)/2
As b -> ∞, so the integral goes to ∞. So the (infinite) integral is undefined.
2007-03-28 14:44:32
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answer #1
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answered by Scarlet Manuka 7
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â
â«( ln(x)/x dx )
e
Since this is an improper integral, you have to express it as a limit.
lim â« (e to t, ln(x)/x dx )
t â â
lim â« (e to t, ln(x) (1/x) dx )
t â â
To evaluate the integral, we need to use substitution.
Let u = ln(x). {When x = e, u = ln(e) = 1. When x = t, u = ln(t) }
du = (1/x) dx
After the substitution, our bounds change, and the integral becomes
lim â« (1 to ln(t), u du )
t â â
Which is easily evaluated.
lim [ (1/2)u² ] { evaluated from 1 to ln(t) }
t â â
lim [ (1/2)[ln(t)]² - (1/2)[ln(1)]² ]
t â â
lim [ (1/2)[ln(t)]² - (1/2)[0]² ]
t â â
lim (1/2)[ln(t)]²
t â â
But as t approaches infinity, ln(t) approaches infinity, so the limit does not exist and the integral diverges.
2007-03-31 06:41:17
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answer #2
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answered by Puggy 7
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