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Is there a reason for this oddity?

2007-03-28 09:44:31 · 4 answers · asked by DALMATINKA 1 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

4 answers

We used to say the "p" in psychic, but stopped saying the "p".

2007-03-28 14:46:22 · answer #1 · answered by Michael M 6 · 0 0

I don't know if the greeks pronounced the 'p' in psi (ψ), but not all languages with greek influence have made the 'p' silent, for instance, the french pronounciation of "psychologie" is: psee-kol-o-zhee. The 'p' remains, thankfully, as a hsitorical mark of the meaning of the word, it's derivation in the use of the ancient concept "psyche." The vernacular has never stopped changing. I suppose, if there were words such as "cycle-logical" we might have a better reason to pronounce the p, but for our English purposes the nuance doesn't disambiguate words that include ψ, so common speech reflects this. We may, in a few centuries, pronounce it again. A language that's set in stone may still be forever unknown in its cadence and intonation.

2007-03-28 18:03:08 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

First explain why this question is in the Philosophy category. Exactly how does this question remotely relate in any way to Philosophy?

2007-03-28 17:44:27 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Have you tried saying it with a P sound? it sounds utterly ridiculous.

2007-03-28 17:54:33 · answer #4 · answered by cosgirl22 2 · 0 0

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